1)

What does the Mitzvah of "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem ... " entail?

1.

Ramban: Refer to 11:19:1:1:1.

2.

Seforno: It is an obligation to accustom one's children to keep the Mitzvos.

3.

Kidushin, 29b: It is a Mitzvah to teach one's sons 1 Torah. 2


1

Bava Basra, 21a: Initially, someone who had no father would grow-up to be an Am ha'Aretz - until Yehoshua ben Gamla (may his name be remembered for the good) came and introduced the concept of Chadarim - where the children would learn with a Rebbe. See Torah Temimah, note 46, who elaborates.

2

And when he does so, he instills Chochmah into his son (Yerushalmi Kidushin, 1:7).

2)

Having taught "Veshinantam le'Vanecha ... " in Va'eschanan, in 6:7, why does the Torah repeat here "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem"?

1.

Ramban: Because (in Va'eschanan), "Veshinantam le'Vanecha", refers to teaching one's children the Mitzvos, "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem Ledaber bam" implies that one is obligated to teach them well until they speak Divrei Torah at all times. 1

2.

Berachos, 46b: To teach us 'she'Yehei Limudach Tam' (the acronym of "Velimadtem"), to make a break between two words where the last letter of one is the same assss the first letter of the other - such as 'be'Chol Levavcha" and " "Va'avadtem Meheirah".

3.

Kidushin, 29b: To compare "u'Lemadtem osam" ('You shall learn them') - in Va'eschanan, 5:1 to "Velimadtem osam" ('You shall teach them') 2 here - to teach us that, since women are not subject to being taught Torah, 3 they are also exempt from learning it themselves; and vice-versa - Since they are not obligated ti learn it themselves, they are Patur from teaching it to their children.

4.

Yerushalmi Berachos, 2:3: To compare Keri'as Shema and Tefilin to Talmud Torah - to teach us that, since women are not subject to the latter, they are also Patur from the former. 4


1

Refer also to 11:19:1:2:1.

2

Even though the punctuation and the meaning of the word is slightly different.

3

Refer to 11:19:1:2:1.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 50.

3)

Why does the Torah change from "Veshinantam le'Vanecha" in Va'eschanan, 6:7 to "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because here, as opposed to there, the Torah is speaking to all the fathers in general, most of whom are not experts who are able to answer all their children's questions immediately, 1 therefore the Torah is instructing them to teach them the basics. 2


1

Refer to 6:7:1:1.

2

Refer to 11:19:2:1.

4)

What are the implications of "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem"?

1.

Kidushin, 29b: It implies "es Beneichem" 've'Lo Benoseichem' - to exempt a father from teaching his daughter Torah. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 48, who points out that teaching one's daughter is even prohibitded, and elaborates. Note that the Pasuk is confined to the Mitzvah of Talmud-Torah, and not to learning the Mitzvos that one needs to keep.

5)

Why does the Pasuk add the words "Ledaber bam"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that, the moment a child is able to speak, one should teach him to say the Pasuk "Torah Tzivah lanu Moshe ... ". And from here, Chazal learned that as soon as the child is able to speak, his father should speak with him in Lashon ha'Kodesh and teach him ('Torah Tzivah lanu Moshe ... ' - and the first Pasuk of Keri'as Shema - Sukah, 42). 1

2.

Ramban: Refer to 11:19:2:1.


1

Rashi: Otherwise, it is as if he has buried him. See Torah Temimah, citing the Sifri, and note 52, where he discusses the obligation to teach a child Lashon ha'Kodesh.

6)

Having already stated "Vedibarta Bam" in Va'eschanan, 6:7, why does the Torah repeat it here?

1.

Ramban: The Pasuk in Va'eschnan is referring to a person himself speaking Divrei Torah at all times wherever it is referring to teaching one's children to do likewise. 1


1

Refer to 11:19:2:1 and to 6:7:1:2*.

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