Why does the Torah write "Veshachav Ish osah" as if she is guilty of adultery?
Seforno: Because such is the way of the Yeitzer ha'Ra, to go from one wicked deed to another. 1
What are the implications of the word "Ish"?
Rashi: "Ish" comes to preclude a Katan (under bar-Mitzvah) and an animal, neither of which render a woman a Sotah.
What does the word "Osah" come to preclude?
Rashi: "Osah" comes to preclude the woman's sister, who does not forbid her to her husband in the event that he committed adultery with her. 1
See Sifsei Chachamim, who cites the Gemara in Yevamos, 95a. The Tanchuma that Rashi cites, refers to a case where a Sotah's sister (who resembled her) went to Yerushalayim and, posing as the Sotah, drank the water of a Sotah and did not die. It is not clear however, why it requires a Pasuk to preclude it; since it is obvious that Rachel will not die if it is Le'ah who sinned?
What are the implications of the phrase "Vene'elam me'Einei Ishah'?
Rashi: It precludes the wife of a blind man from the law of Sotah, and includes one who simply turned a blind eye to his wife's machinations.
Seforno: It implies that he somehow remained unaware of all the goings-on. 1
Seforno: Because if was aware of what was happening and remained silent, the Mei Sotah would not work.
What are the specifications of "Venist'rah"? For how long must they be secluded?
Rashi: It means that they were secluded for as long as it takes for them to have been intimate. 1
Why does the Torah add "v'Hi Nitma'ah", even though it is not sure that she committed adultery?
Rashi (in Yevamos, 58a): To teach that, the moment witnesses testify that she secluded with the man concerned, she becomes forbidden to her husband (until she drinks from the Mei Sotah). 1
Sotah 28a: In fact, the Torah writes "v'Hi Nitma'ah" three times in the Parshah of Sotah - to forbid her to her husband, the adulterer, and from eating Terumah (-if she is married to a Kohen).
What if there are witnesses that she is guilty of adultery?
What are the implications of "v'Hi Lo Nispasah"?
Rashi: It means that she was not raped. (
Rashbam: If she was forcibly secluded, she is exempt (she need not drink).
Sotah 28a expounds the repetition of "Nitma'ah" to forbid her to her husband and the adulterer. Why do we need a verse to forbid her to her husband? Even if he divorced her and she remarried and had Bi'ah b'Heter with another man, she may not return to him, and all the more so if she had Bi'ah b'Isur!
Moshav Zekeinim (9): The Kal v'Chomer does not teach to a Sotah, for it is a Safek whether or not she sinned. 1
Perhaps we cannot learn from the Kal v'Chomer, for a man may remarry his divorcee after she had Bi'as Zenus, like the case of Sotah. (PF)
Many hold that the Torah forbids Safek Isur. And perhaps even the Ramban forbids a Safek Kares, since the Torah obligates Asham Taluy for it! We can say that the Drashah obligates lashes when she Vadai sinned. (PF)
What does it mean "v'Ed Ein Bah"?
Rashi (from Sotah 2a): There is not even one witness of Bi'ah. If there is a witness, she does not drink. 1
Moshav Zekeinim: The verse is expounded in two ways. "Bah" (Tum'ah), there are no witnesses at all, but there are two witnesses of warning and seclusion.
Riva (2a): However, there are two witnesses of seclusion. Everywhere else, "Ed" refers to two witnesses.
Sotah 2a learns from "Lo Yakum Ed Echad b'Ish" (Devarim 19:15) that elsewhere, "Ed" is two witnesses. Why don't we learn from a Binyan Av, that everywhere it is one? Also, we could learn from "v'Ed Echad Lo Ya'aneh" (35:30), and "Lo Sa'aneh Ed Shaker" (Shemos 20:13) - surely one witness may not lie!