hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah add the 'Hey' in "ha'Aretz"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing Ibn Ezra and Rashi in Bereishis 31:13 1 ): It is similar to the Pasuk in Divrei ha'Yamim 2, 15:8 - "ve'haNevu'ah Oded ha'Navi" - and is as if it had written 'el ha'Aretz, Eretz Cana'an. 2

2.

Ramban #2: It means 'the land (that is called) Cana'an (after its inhabitants). 3


1

Ramban: On the Pasuk "Anochi ha'Keil Beis-Eil".

2

Ramban: Like one says 'ha'Ir Yerushalayim' and like "ha'Melech David" (Melachim 1, 1:1, and "ve'ha'Ish Gavri'el", Daniel, 9:21.

2)

Why is it necessary to define the borders of Eretz Yisrael?

1.

Rashi: Because many Mitzvos only apply inside Eretz Yisrael and not in Chutz la'Aretz. 1


1

This is problematic however, inasmuch as, with the exceptio0n of Bikurim, eth Dinim of T'rumos and Ma'asros applied east of the Yarden, in the land that they captured from Sichon and Og.

3)

Why does the Torah use the word "Tipol ... "?

1.

Rashi #1 and Seforno: Because that is the expression that goes with the lots 1 by which the land was divided.

2.

Rashi #2 (citing a Midrash Agadah): It hints at the fact that Hashem cast down the angels of the seven nations of Cana'an and bound them in front of Moshe. 2


1

Seforno: As in Tehilim, 22:19 and in Esther, 3:7.

2

Rashi: And said to him 'See they have no strength left!'

4)

What are the implications of the word "Zos"?

1.

Seforno: To preclude the land that they captured in Chutz la'Aretz , which did not require lots. 1


1

Seforno: Such as that of Sichon and Og - as is implied in Yehoshua (Refer to 33:33:4:1*) - since it did not possess the Kedushah of of Eretz Yisrael, and was not therefore worthy of lots, which are an issue of Ru'ach ha'Kodesh (See Rashi, Bamidbar 26:54).

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