hebrew
1)

What are the implications of "Vayasem Hashem Davar b'Fi Bil'am"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing commentaries) 1 : Hashem filled Bil'am's mouth with the words that he had to say, and they subsequently came out by themselves without his participation. 2

2.

Ramban #2: Hashem taught him what to say, "placing the words in his mouth" so that he should not forget them. 3


1

See R. Chavel's footnotes.

2

See Ramban's objection to this explanation based on the Pasuk "Shome'a Imrei Keil asher Machazeh Shakai Yechezeh" (24:4) - despite the fact that the Midrash Tanchuma seems to support it.

3

Ramban: As in Devarim 31:11 and Shmuel 2, 13:32.

2)

Why does it say "v'Cho Sedaber"? It does not say here what Hashem told him!

1.

Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim (10): I said [to Avraham

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