1)

Why does the Torah refer to Ma'aser Rishon as "Terumah"?

1.

Rashi: The Torah refers to it as Terumah until the T'rumas Ma'aser has been taken from it.

2)

Why here, does the Torah not add "Ani Chelk'cha ve'Nachalasecha"- like it does in connection with the Kohanim - whereas in Parshas Shoftim, in connection with T'rumo and Ma'asros (inter alia) it writes "Hashem Hu Nachalaso" - including the Levi'im?

1.

Oznayhim la'Torah: Because regarding the Avodah, the Levi'im are not on the same level as the Kohanim, who perform the Avodah in the Beis-Hamikdash, whereas when it comes to the Ma'asros that they receive, they, like the Kohanos, eat from the Table of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu.

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