1)

Why does the Torah refer to Ma'aser Rishon as "Terumah"?

1.

Rashi: Because T'rumas Ma'aser has not yet been taken from it.

2.

Yevamos, 86a: To teach us that, like Terumah, until Ma'aser is taken from the crops, it has a Din of Tevel. 1

3.

Sifri: To teach us that, if the owner wants to declare the Tevel in the Ma?aser T?rumas Ma?aser on another batch, he may do so. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 84.

2

Sifri Zuta: As long as he has not yet separated the T?rumas Ma?aser ? See Torah Temimah, note 86.

2)

Why here, does the Torah not add "Ani Chelk'cha ve'Nachalasecha"- like it does in connection with the Kohanim - whereas in Parshas Shoftim, in connection with T'rumos and Ma'asros (inter alia) it writes "Hashem Hu Nachalaso" - including the Levi'im?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because regarding the Avodah, the Levi'im are not on the same level as the Kohanim, who perform the Avodah in the Beis-Hamikdash, whereas when it comes to the Ma'asros that they receive, they, like the Kohanos, eat from the Table of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu.

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