Why does the Torah write "u'Vesaram (plural) Yih'yeh lach"?
Zevachim, 37b: To teach us that a B'chor Ba'al-Mum is also given to the Kohen - the only source for this in the Torah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 76.
What are the ramifications of the comparison (Semuchin) between the Z'rikas ha'Dam and the Achilas Basar?
Zevachim, 112b: It teaches us that a Kohen who is not fit to sprinkle the blood is not eligible to receive a portion of Basar. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 77.
What are the ramifications of the Torah's comparison of B'chor Beheimah to Chazeh ve'Shok?
Rashi: It teaches us that it 1 may be eaten by the Kohen's wife, children and Avadim Cana'anim, for two days and one night
See Torah Temimah, note 78. This ruling pertains to a B'chor Tam but not to a Ba'al-Mum, of which a Yisrael and a woman who is a Nidah is permitted to partake. See Torah Temimah, citing Bechoros, 32b & 33a and note 81.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "l'cha Yih'yeh"?
Rashi: Refer to 18:18:3:1. To teach us that it is not compared to the Chazeh ve'Shok of a Todah - which may be eaten for only one day and one night.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the comparison teaches us that it may be eaten for two days. We should know this from the Pasuk in Re'ei Devarim, 15:20 "Sochalenu