1)

To whom does Hashem "Hibadlu" refer?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing R. Chananel): It refer to the whole of Yisrael. 1

2.

Ramban #2 and Seforno 2 : It refers to Moshe and Aharon. 3


1

Refer to 16:21:2:1. See also 17:10:2:1*, as to why it was necessary to distance the people from the vicinity of the sinners.

2

Refer to 15:21:3:1.

3

Refer to 16:21:2:2.

2)

To whom is "ha'Eidah ha'Zos referring?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing R. Chananel): It refers to Korach and his congregation.

2.

Ramban #2: It refers to all of Yisrael, 1 who were dithering between Korach and Moshe, and were therefore Chayav Misah bi'Yedei Shamayim.


1

Ramban: For doubting their Rebbi's veracity (See Sanhedrin, 110a) and for negating the prophecy of a Navi.

3)

If "ha'Eidah ha'Zos refer to all of Yisrael, why did Hashem not add 've'E'eseh eschem le'Goy Gadol'?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because it is referring, not to all of Yisrael, but to the majority, who had gone to the entrance of the Ohel Mo'ed 1 to watch what hapenned to the two hundred and fifty men. 2


1

See Oznayim la'Torah.

2

Refer also to 16:24:1:3.

4)

Why did Hashem instruct Moshe and Aharon to leave the vicinity of the congregation of Korach?

1.

Seforno: So that they should not protect them and prevent the Divine punishment from taking place. 1


1

Seforno: As in Iyov, 23:30.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:
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