1)

Why was Moshe angry?

1.

Rashi and Hadar Zekenim (in Pasukf 6): He wasn't angry. 1 He was deeply pained 2 (because he had no answer to their accusation that he did not keep his word about bringing them to Eretz Yisrael - Rashi in the original text and Hadar Zekenim citing the Tanchuma). 3

2.

Ramban #1 (in Pasukf 16): Moshe was furious - (as Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan explain) - because Dasan and Aviram said "Lo Na'aleh". 4

3.

Ramban #2: Refer to 16:29:1:1**.

4.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because even Korach had claimed that the entire congregation was holy - including Moshe, whereas Dasan and Aviram denigrated and accused him of being a fraud, 5 and lied outright when they claimed that he dominated them.


1

Oznayim la'Torah: Otherwise the Torah would have written 'va'Yichhar Af Moshe'.

2

See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.

3

Even though he did answer their other accusation - that he dominated them.

4

Refer to 16:17:2:1.

5

See Oznayim la'Torah.

2)

Which Minchah was Moshe referring to?

1.

Rashi #1: He was referring to the Ketores that they would bring the following day 1 (and he Davened that Hashem should not acccept it, just as he did not ccept the Korban of Kayin, whose reincarnation Korach was - Oznayim la'Torah). 2

2.

Rashi #2: He was referring to the individual portion that each person has in the Korban Tamid. 3

3.

Ramban (citing Targum Onkelos) and Seforno: Seeing as they wanted the Kehunah and to sacrifice the Korbanos, Moshe Davened that Hashem should decline to accept any Korban 4 that they might bring on the Mizbe'ach 5 (as an atonement ? Seforno) 6 and any Tefilah that they might offer.


1

See Ramban's objection to this explanation.

2

See Oznayim la;'Torah, who elaborates.

3

Rashi: He Davened that the fire on the Mizbe'ach should not burn it. See Ramban's objection to this explanation.

4

Seforno: "Minchah" in this context is synonymous with 'Korban', as we find on Shmuel 1, 26:19.

5

Ramban: Refer to 16:15:2:4*.

6

Seforno: Because he (Moshe) did not forgive them, and, as we learned in Yoma, 85b, 'Even Yom Kipur will not atone for a sin that one transgresses against one's friend, unless the friend pardons the sinner'. See also Yirmiyah, 18:20 & 23.

3)

What was Moshe referring to when he said "Lo Chamor Echad meihem Nasasi"?

1.

Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos) 1 : He was referring to compensation for transportation, with regard to when he traveled from Midyan to Egypt to redeem Yisrael, leading his wife and sons on a donkey, he was entitled to claim the donkey from the people, but in fact, he used his own donkey. 2

2.

Seforno: He meant that he never benefited from any of them, even with regard to borrowing a donkey from one of them. 3

3.

Ramban (citing Targum Onkelos) Rashbam and Targum Yonasan 4 : He meant that he never acted highhandedly, in the way that other rulers do, 5 by demanding from them even one donkey. 6

4.

Nedarim, 38a: He meant that he never took a donkey from any one of them, even for payment - a proof that he was wealthy 7 and did not need to come on to anybody for anything. 8

5.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: "Nasa'si" refers to a tax that a king claims from his subjects, which he waived.

6.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: He was referring to the way of kings, as described in Shmuel (who was a descendent of Korach) - to take the people's donkeys for their own use and to treat the people themselves as their slaves. 9 Hence he responded to Dasan and Aviram's accusation "Lo Chamor Echad meihem Nasasi ve'Lo Hare'osi Achad meihem"!


1

According to Rashi's interpretation of the word "Shecharis" in Targum Onkelos.

2

See Oznayim la'Torah's objection to Rashi's explanation.

3

Seforno: Something that people commonly do - and this was a sure proof that whatever he did as a leader was for the people's sake and that their claims stemmed from a lack of Hakaras ha'Tov.

4

According to the Ramban's interpretation of the word "Shecharis" in Targum Onkelos.

5

Ramban: As described in Shmuel 1, 8:15.

6

Rashbam: So why do they accuse him of dominating them?

7

See Torah Temimah, note 11.

8

This implies that Moshe was wealthy aleady in Egypt. This seems to clash with Chazal, who say that he became wealthy from the carvings of the Luchos ? Refer to Sh?mos, 34:1:2:1* and see Torah Temimah there, note 1.

9

See Shmuel 1, 8:11-17.

4)

What did Moshe mean when he concluded "ve'Lo Hare'osi es Achad meihem"?

1.

Seforno: He meant that they could not even accuse him of sentencing any of them in Beis-Din, since that never happened. 1


1

It is not clear whether the Seforno means that he never sentenced them unjustly or whether he always ended the case with a compromise.

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