hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah now write "Eis Kol asher Tzivah Hashem aleichem ... "?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: To teach us that if someone acknowledges Avodah-Zarah, it is as if he denies the entire Torah.

2)

Why does the Pasuk add "Min ha'Yom asher Tzivah Hashem ... "?

1.

Rashi: To incorporate (in the denial) all the prophesies that all the Nevi'im prophesied.

2.

Rashbam: This refers to "Anochi" and "Lo Yih'yeh l'cha", which preceded all the other Mitzvos.

3)

Why does the Torah write "ve'Lo Sa'asu ... ", implying that it is referring to someone who fails to perform a Mitzvas Asei?

1.

Ramban #1: It means that he did not do what the Torah commanded, but the opposite.

2.

Ramban #2: The Torah sometimes refers to prohibitions as 'Mitzvos'. 1


1

Ramban: Like we find in Vayikra, 4:2.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & Donations Readers' Feedback Mailing Lists Talmud Archives Ask the Kollel Dafyomi Weblinks Dafyomi Calendar Other Yomi calendars