hebrew
1)

Why does the Pasuk employ the double Miy'ut "ha'Rak Ach"?

1.

Rashi: Miriam and Aharon were saying was "Did Hashem speak only to Moshe (and not to anybody else)?" 1


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2)

What exactly was their criticism of Moshe?

1.

Rashi: They complained that Hashem spoke with them too, yet they did not separate from their respective spouses!

2.

Rashbam and Seforno: What made Moshe think that he was superior to them, seeing as Hashem spoke to Yisrael via them just as He spoke to them via him! 1


1

Seforno: Notwithstanding the fact that Hashem spoke with Moshe exclusively on Har Sinai. Rashbam: This was an additional criticism about Moshe (Refer to 12:1:4:2).

3)

Why does the Torah add a 'Beis' to the word "Moshe"?

1.

Rashi (in Shmuel 2, 23:2): Because when a Navi prophesies, a spirit enters into him and speaks inside him. 1


1

Rashi: As in that Pasuk and here in Pasuk 8.

4)

What is the significance of the phrase "Vayishma Hashem"?

1.

Seforno: It teaches us that Hashem will always take the part of a Talmid-Chacham. 1


1

Seforno: As the Gemara states in B'rachos, 19a 'A Talmid-Chacham is different inasmuch a Hashem defends his Kavod!' See also Ba'al ha'Turim.

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