Why did Moshe use the feminine form, when he said to Hashem "ve'Im Kachah At Oseh li"?
Rashi: When Hashem showed Moshe the punishment that He was about to bring upon Yisrael for their sin, he felt powerless like a woman 1 and asked Hashem to kill him first.
Ramban #1: It is a normal manner of speech. 2
Seforno: What he meant was that, if, in his honor, Hashem would apply a weaker, imperfect Hashgachah with regard to Yisrael
See Ramban, who queries this explanation, bearing in mind that the word "At" refer to Hashem, and not to Moshe?
Ramban: See Pasuk 10.
What are the implications of "Horgeini Na Harog!"?
Ramban #1: It implies 'Send people to kill me by the sword'. 1
Ramban #2: It implies 'Kill me by Your Hand'. 2
Targum Yonasan: (Refer to 11:15:1:5). 'Then kill me with the death that is reserved for Tzadikim!'
And why did he say "ve'Al Er'eh be'Ra'asi " and not 'be'Ra'asam?
Rashi: It is a Tikun Sofrim - Moshe actually said 'be'Ra'asam', only he wrote in the Torah 'be'Ra'asi" 1 to soften the impact.
Seforno: He meant that he did not want to see the fateful Hashgachah (that affected Yisrael and) that Hashem brought about on account of him. 2