hebrew
1)

What are the implications of "Ki Sissa es Rosh"?

1.

Rashi: Refer to Ki Sissa, Shemos 30:12:1:1.

2.

Ramban (citing Midrash Rabah) 1 : 'Like one says to an executioner - Remove the head of P'loni!' This refers to the scenario where, if Yisrael do not merit it, they will all die. 2 Whereas in the event that they do merit it, Hashem will raise them to greatness. 3


1

The Ramban initially cites Rashi, though we not not have it in our version of Rashi.

2

Ramban: Like Yosef told the chief baker (Bereishis 40:19) "The king will remove your head from on you and hang you on a tree.

3

Ramban: Like Yosef told the chief butler "Pharaoh will Raise your head and return you to your post!"

2)

What is the significance of "le'Mishpechosam"?

1.

Rashi: "le'Mishpechosam" in this Pasuk actually refers to the tribes and not to the families.

3)

What is the exact meaning of "le'Veis Avosam"?

1.

Rashi: It means that someone whose father is from the tribe of Reuven, say, and his mother, from Shimon, then he is counted with the tribe of Reuven.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the words "be'Mispar Sheimos"?

1.

Ramban (on Pasuk 18) 1 : Because it was necessary to clarify the Yichus of each individual member of each family. 2

2.

Seforno: Because every individual in that generation was counted by name, 3 since each one was a personality in his own right. 4


1

Refer to 1:18:2:2*.

2

Ramban: This was not necessary by the second census which took place in the fortieth year, by which time their names were already well-known (See Ramban Ibid. DH 'Vayisyaldu ... ').

3

Seforno: In the same way as the Torah writes in Shemos 33:17 "va'Eda'acha be'Sheim".

4

Seforno: This was not the case by the next generation, which explains why the Torah does not insert "be'Mispar Sheimos" in Bamidbar 26:2. See Seforno. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.

5)

And what are the connotations of "le'Gulgelosam"?

1.

Rashi: It teaches us that they were counted by means of the half-Shekalim, about which the Torah writes "Beka la'Gulgoles". 1


1

Rashi: In Shemos 38:26.

6)

Why does the Torah write "le'Gulgelosam" only by Reuven and Shimon and not by the other tribes?

1.

Da'as Zekeinim mi'Ba'alei Tosfos: Because Ya'akov scolded them when he blessed his other sons, and they needed a Kaparah - and in connection with the half-Shekalim, which came as a Kaparah, the Torah 1 wrote "la'Gulgoles".


1

Da'as Zekeinim: In Shemos 38:26.

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