hebrew
1)

What exactly is the meaning of the words "ve'ha'Nosar ba'Basar u'va'Lachem"?

1.

Ramban: It means "Whatever is leftover from the Basar and from the bread" - as if it had written "mi'Basar u'mi'Lachem" (with a 'Mem'). 1


1

As we find in Yechezkel, 23:27 and in Shoftim, 10:8 [Ramban]).

2)

Why does the Torah not write "ve'ha'Nosar ad ha'Boker"?

1.

Ramban #1: Because they already knew that the Shelamim of the Milu'im had the stringencies of Kodshei Kodshim - which may only be eaten for a day and a night, and which become Nosar on the following morning.

2.

Ramban #2: Because the Torah wrote in Shemos (29:34), by the command "V'Im Yivaser mi'Besar ha'Milu'im u'min ha'Lechem ad ha'Boker, Vesarafta es ha'Nosar ba'Eish ... ".

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