hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah refer to the current Korban as the 'Eil ha'Milu'im', bearing in mind that all the Korbanos discussed in this Parshah were part of the inauguration ceremony?

1.

Rashi, Ramban #1 and Targum Yonasan: "Milu'im" here means (not 'inauguration' but) 'Shelamim' 1 - because this Korban completed the ceremony that inaugurated the Kohanim into the Kehunah.

2.

Ramban #2: The Chatas came to atone for the Mizbe'ach, the Olah, to bring Aharon and his sons closer to Hashem, 2 and the Shelamim, to offer thanks to Hashem for having placed them in charge of His House - in which case the Shelamim was the only Korban that actually came to inaugurate them. 3


1

An expression of 'Shaleim' - complete.

2

To atone for them, like all Olos (Ramban).

3

And the reason that it is called 'Milu'im' (in the plural) and not 'Miluy' is because besides the Chalavim, Shok and loaves of the Minchah were also brought on the Mizbe'ach (Ramban).

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