hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah insert the second "ve'ha'Basar"?

1.

Rashi: It comes to permit Basar of a limb of Kodshei Kodshim, part of which left the Azarah, or of that of Kodshim Kalim, part of which left Yerushalayim - to permit the part that remained inside to be eaten. 1


1

Although this is not the case regarding Tum'ah (See Ba'al ha'Turim).

2)

And what is the last part of the Pasuk ("ve'ha'Basar, Kol Tahor Yochal Basar") coming to teach us?

1.

Rashi #1: It is coming to teach us that not only the owner, but anyone who is Tahor, may eat the Shelamim.

2.

Rashi #2: That although the Basar of a Chatas and an Asham that leave the precincts of the Azarah may not be eaten, 1 the Basar of a Shelamim may be eaten anywhere in Yerushalayim.


1

As we learned earlier, in Vayikra 6:9 (Rashi).

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