How can the Torah write "Kol ha'Dam" bearing in mind that the Kohen has already sprinkled some of it towards the Paroches?
Why does the Torah not mention Kaparah and Selichah by the Chatas of the Kohen Gadol, like it does by those of the Tzibur, the Nasi and the commoner?
Ramban (2), Moshav Zekenim (2) #1: Due to his distinguished status, he does not attain full atonement with his Korban, until he prays and implores Hashem to forgive him. 1
Ba'al ha'Turim, Moshav Zekenim (2) #2: Due to the Mishnah in Pirkei Avos (4:16) 'Shigegas Talmud Olah Zadon' (he is considered Mezid). 2
Moshav Zekenim: Also the Kohen Gadol's Chatas is when the nation sinned due to him. The coming Parshah (a mistake Hora'ah of Beis Din) is connected to this Parshah. What it says there (verse 20 - "v'Chiper
Why does the Torah not say about Haktaras Emurim of Parim ha'Nisrafim "Re'ach Nicho'ach" or "Isheh la'Shem"?
Ramban (2), Moshav Zekenim (2): This is because part of the Korban (the bulk of the animal) was burned outside the Mishkan. It is not Isheh la'Shem.