What is the meaning of "Sefi'ach Ketzircha"?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: And they are so-called because, technically, they are 'joined' (Nispach) to last-year's crops. See Yeshayah, 14:1.
Ramban: R. Akiva forbids all Sefichim are Asur mi'd'Oraisa. Accordeing to the Chachamim however, they are Asur only mi'de'Rabbanan, in case people will plant them and say that they grew by themselves. (See DH 've'Achshav' and 'u'le'Kach' and subsequent Diburim, where he elaborates at length.)Moshav Zekenim (citing Rashi, Pesachim 51b): R. Akiva forbids Sefichim mi'd'Oraisa after Bi'ur (when they are no longer available in the field); The Rabbanan, however forbade then even beforehan. If so, how do the Rabanan explain the Torah Isur of harvesting Sefichim (P.F)?
What are the connotations of "Lo Siktzor?
Rashi: It is a prohibition against harvesting one's crops like an owner - without making the Hefker. 1
Ramban and Targum Onkelos: It is a prohibition against harvesting the crops that one fenced in like an owner and did not make Hefker. 2
Yerushalmi, Shevi'is, 8:6: : It is a prohibition against harvesting one's crops in the conventional manner. 3
What are "Invei Nezirecha"?
Rashi: They are vines that one separated people from them (by fencing them in)
What are the connotations of "ve'es Invei Nezirecha Lo Sivtzor"?
Rashi: It is a prohibition against harvesting the grapes from which one separated people, 1 only from those that are Hefker (even though they were initially guarded).
Ramban and Targum Onkelos: It is a prohibition against harvesting one's vines from which one separated oneself, as if one did not own them 2 - by not working, digging or pruning them, 3 the fruit of which the owner is forbidden to harvest for himself. 4
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Ramban: As in Yechezkel, 14:5 and above, 22:2. The owner must make them Hefker, since he has no more rights to them than the poor and the animals. Targum Onkelos calls them 'abandoned' (to worms and desolation, or because thorns will grow there), In fact, the Torah refers to them as "Invei Nezirecha", because, like a Nazir's vineyard; he is obligated to abandon it. See Ramban DH 'u'Peirush ha'Kasuv'.
Having already said in the previous Pasuk "Shabbas Shabbason Yih'yeh la'Aretz", why does the Torah repeat "Sh'nas Shabbason Yih'yeh la'Aretz"?
Sifra: To teach us that with the termination of Sh'mitah, the owner is permitted to work on the tree, even though the fruit that is on the tree remains forbidden. 1
See Torah Temimah., note 16.
Bearing in mind that Sh'mitah begins in Tishri, why does the Torah discuss "Sefi'ach", which only appear after Pesach, before "Nezirecha" (vine branches that one cuts off already in Tishri)? !