Why does the Torah write "ve'Hisnachaltem osam li'Veneichem" (in the reflexive) and not "ve'Hinchaltem ... "?
Rashi: The Pasuk means 'Take possession of your slaves on behalf of your children.' 1
Rashi (in Bava Metzi'a, 12a): It also implies that one acquires the body of an Eved Cana'ani forevyy9er
Why does the Torah write "li'Veneichem Achareichem" and not "le'Zar'achem Achareichem"?
Bava Basra, 110b: To teach us that where there are sons and daighters, the sons inherit and not the dauhgters. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 235.
What is the word "Osam", which does not go together with "Vehisnachaltem (which is reflexive) coming to preclude?
Kidushin, 16a: It precludes Avadim Ivrim from being acquired by means of Chazakah. 1
Kidushin, 16b: It precludes a father from passing on the inheritance of his daughter's rights
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Achareichem"?
Sifra: To teach us that once someone is established as being the son of his father, he is a son in all regards. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 236.
Why does the Torah use the expression "Lareshes Achuzah" in connection with Avadim Cana'anim?
What are the ramifications of "le'Olam bahem Ta'avodu"?
Gitin, 38b: It teaches us a. an obligation to make an Eved Cana'ani work, and b. that whoever sets an Eved free transgresses an Asei. 1
Moshav Zekenim (citing Kidushin 22b): It teaches us that even though an Eved Cana'ani is compared to a Sadeh Achuzah he does not return to the seller in the Yovel.
Nidah, 47a: One is permitted to make them work, but no to shame them. 2
See Torah Temimah note 243, who elaborates. The Ran explains that it is not a full-fledgyed Asei
Why does the Torah juxtaapose "u've'Acheichem" to Le'olam bahem Ta'avodu"?
Why does the Torah insert the words "Ish be'Achiv"?
Rashi: To teach us that the Isur of subjugating an Eved Ivri extends to a leader subjugating the people under his control, and a king subjugating his subjects. 1
Sifra: To incorporate a man not subjugating a woman and vice-versa.
See Torah Temimah, note 247.
What does the (otherwise suerfluous) word "Lo Sirdeh bo be'Farech"?
Sifra: It permits subjugating a free man to hard work
See Torah Temimah, note 249.
The Gemara in Kidushin, 22b learns from "ve'Hisnachaltem Osam li'Veneichem" that Chazakah acquires Cana'ani slaves, but not others (Eved Ivri). Above (16b), it taught that you bequeath slaves to your sons, but not [rights in] your daughters to your sons!
Moshav Zekenim: The latter Drashah is because this was written next to li'Veneichem.
The Gemara in Kidushin. 22b learns from a Gezeirah Shavah from "le'Olam" "le'Olam" that an Eved Cana'ani does not return [to the seller] in Yovel, Why do we mot say that "le'Olam" means until Yovel, like it means for a Nirtza?
Riva #1: If he serves until Yovel, the Torah should have omitted le'Olam, and I would learn from the Hekesh to a field. (Rather, l'Olam must mean permanently.)
Riva #2 and Moshav Zekenim: Also regarding a Nirtza, we would have said that le'Olam is permanently, if not for a Drashah (refer to 25:10:7:1). There is no Drashah for an Eved Cana'ani.
Having already stated in Pasuk 43 "Lo Sirdeh vo be'Farech, why does the Torah repeat it here"?
Moshav Zekenim #1: Here it refers to an Eved Cana'ani who acts like Acheichem B'nei Yisrael - properly. One may not make him do Avodas Parech.
Moshav Zekenim #2 (citing the Pesikta): "Ish be'Achiv" implies a man subjugating a man. "u've'Acheichem" includes a woman, whether she is the victim or the oppressor.
Moshav Zekenim #3 (citing the Pesikta): "Vo" (an Eved Ivri) you may not tell him to do Avodas Parech, but you may tell a free man - one who wants to work for you; because if he wants, he can quit his job (PF).
Moshav Zekenim, citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: This is a second La'av. 1
It is not clear whether the first La'av is "Lo Sa'avod Bo Avodas Aved" (Pasuk 39) or "Lo Sirdeh Vo be'Farech" (Pasuk 43). (PF)