1)

Why does the Torah write "Es Kasp'cha" and "Ochlecha" and not 'Kesef' and 'Ochel' S'tam?

1.

Sifra: To preclude the money and the food of a Nochri, which one is permitted to lend on interest. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 196.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the word "Lo Sitem Lo"?

1.

Bava Metzi'a, 69b: To restrict the Isur Ribis to Ribis that goes directly from the Loveh to the Malveh, but not to where Reuven gives Shimon a Zuz in order thatt he lend Levi ten Dinrim or in order to ask Levi to lend him ten Dinrim. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 199, who elaborates.

3)

What is the difference between this Pasuk and the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei, Devarim 23:20 "Lo Sashich la'Achicha Neshech Kesef ..."?

1.

Rashi (in Devarim 23:20): The current Pasuk places a La'av on the person who lends on interest, whereas the Pasuk there places a La'av on the Loveh. 1

2.

Bava Metzi'a, 61: The Pasuk there also teaches us Neshech by food and Ribis by Kesef. 2


1

Refer also to Sh'mos, 22:24:6:2.

2

See Torah Temimah, citing Bava Metzi'a (Ibid.)

4)

Why does the Torah write "Marbis" here and "Tarbis" in the previous Pasuk?

1.

R. Chaim Paltiel (on Pasuk 36): The firstletters spell 'Meis'. This hints that one who takes Ribis will not come to life at Techiyas ha'Mesim. 1


1

See also Ba'al ha'Turim on Pasuk 36.

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