1)

What is the meaning of the "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im ve'Yatza

1.

Rashi #1: Here, "Yig'al" is referring to a purchase. If one purchases a house or a town 1 from a Levi, it reverts to the Levi in the Yovel. 2

2.

Rashi #2 (citing the Sifra): Even if a Levi bought the field or the house from a Levi, the seller may redeem it whenever he wishes, 3 and if he did not redeem it, it reverts to him in the Yovel.

3.

Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim #1: This clarifies the previous Pasuk "Ge'ulas Olam Tih'yeh la'Levi'im." It teaches us that the seller himself or a relative may redeem the field or the house from the purchaser, It was sold until the Yovel; the redemption is based on the calculation of how many years have passed. 4

4.

Ramban #2, Moshav Zekenim #2 (both citing Erchin, 33a): It refers to a Levi who comes to buy what his relative sold and it reverts to the initial seller in Yovel. 5

5.

Rashbam: It refers to a Levi who wants to redeem his fields, 6 and the Torah is teaching us that if he does not possess the means to do so, it reverts to him anyway in the Yovel. 7


1

See Oznayim la'Torah on Pasuk 32 DH 've'Arei ha'Levi'im ... ', who queries Rashi on this point, since the towns

2)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Veyatza Mimkar Bayis ... "?

1.

Bava Metzi'a, 109a: To preclude the improvements that the purchaser made which do not revert 1 to the owner in the Yovel. 2

2.

Erchin, 33a: To preclude Hekdesh, which does not go out in the Yovel without Pidyon (redemption). 3


1

See Torah Temimah, note 176.

2

Bava Metzi'a (ibid.): And the Torah adds "Mimkar"

3

See Torah Temimah, note 177.

3)

Having written "Mimkar", why does the Torah add "Bayis ve'Ir Achuzaso"?

1.

Erchin, 33a: To preclude Avadim, Metalt'lin and Sh'taros, which do not revert to the owner in the Yovel.

4)

Seeing as the sale of a town belonging to the Levi'im us all but impossible, what does the Torah mean when it writes "Veyatza Mimkar Bayis ve'Ir Achuzaso"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah (citing 'ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah': The 'Vav' in "ve'It" means 'of', as if it had written "shel Ir ha'Nidachas". 1


1

A not uncommon interpretation of the prefix 'Vav' (Oznayim la'Torah, Ibid).

5)

Seing as the Torah is discussing the property of Levi'im, why does it need to insert "Ki Batei Arei ha'Levi'im?

1.

Erchin, 33b: To teach us that the criterion is not purchasing from a Levi, but purchasing the property of a Levi. Consequently, a Yisrael who inherited from his maternal grandfather who was a Levi redeems like a Levi, whereas a Levi who inherits his maternal grandfather who was a Yisrael redeems like a Yisrael. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 178.

6)

Why is the Din regarding a Levi selling a house different than that of a Yisrael?

1.

Rashi: Because the Levi'im do not have a possession of fields and vineyards like Yisre'elim, only towns with their open spaces. 1 Therefore the Torah gives their houses the Din of fields, to redeem at all times, 2 to ensure that their inheritance remains intact.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because a. the Levi'im are prehibitted from expanding their towns, however crowded they become and b. they serve as towns of refuge for the whole of Yisrael thereby adding to the crowded conditions of the town


1

See Mas'ei, Bamidbar 35:2, 3.

2

And to revert to the seller in the Yovel (See Sifsei Chachamim).

3

Refer to 25:35:1:4.

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