1)

What is "u've'Chol Eretz Achuzaschem" referring to?

1.

Rashi #1 (citing Kidushin 21a): It is coming to include houses and Avadim Ivrim to be returned in Yovel. 1

2.

Rashi #2 and Rashbam: With reference to the following Parshah, 2 it is coming to obligate the purchaser to return the field, in the event that the seller comes to redeem it before the Yovel any time after two years.

3.

Ramban, Seforno and Moshav Zekenim: It implies that the laws of Sh'mitah and Yovel apply throughout Eretz Yisrael, 3 but not in Chutz la'Aretz ("u've''Chol" comes to imclude Eiver ha'Yarden and the other lands that we possess).

4.

Seforno: The Pasuk is coming to preclude Chutz la'Aretz from the Din of Sh'mitah an Yovel.

5.

Riva (according to R. Eliezer in Kidushin 21a): This is obligates one to redeem what his relative sold.


1

Kidushin, 21a: And the redemption of Avadim Ivrim by their relatives.

2

See Ramban's objection to this explanation.

3

Ramban: To remove it from the hand of the person who currently has it - as in Yeshayah, 48:20 and in Sh'mos 6:6 - because Hashem wants to redeem the land from the one to whom He did not initially give it as an inheritance.

2)

What are the implications of "Ki Geirim ve'Sochavim atem Imadi"?

1.

Rashi (in Divre3i Hayamim 1, 29:15): It implies that we have no portion, inheritance or possession in the land other than tthe right to sojourn in it.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes that this refers to the following Parshah; the buyer must allow the seller to redeem his field before Yovel. This is unreasonable; the next Parshah begins 'when your brother will become poor'!

1.

Refer to 25:24:1:1,3,4.

2.

Mizrachi: It is reasonable that our Pasuk include a case relevant to the coming Parshah. "Ki Yamuch

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