1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ve'Shor va'Seh"?

1.

Chulin, 80b: To teach us that all blemishes on an ox or on a lamb (or goat) are not acceptable ? and not only Saru'a and Kalut (that are mentioned in the Pasuk).

2)

What is the difference between "Saru'a" and "Kalut"?

1.

Rashi: "Saru'a" means that one of two twin limbs is longer than the other, 1 and "Kalut", that its hoofs are not fully split. 2 2. Targum Onkelos: "Saru'a" means that it has an extra limb, and "Kalut", that it is missing a limb.

2.

Targum Yonasan: "Saru'a" means that it has an extra kidney, and "Kalut", that it is missing a kidney. 3


1

Refer to 21:19:3:1.

2

Like those of a horse and a donkey (Bechoros, 40a).

3

See Na'ar Yonasan.

3)

What do "Nedavah" and "Neder", respectively, mean in this Pasuk?

1.

Rashi (citing the Sifra) and Ramban #2: "Nedavah" (Kedushas Damim ? Rashi in Pesachim, 42a) refers to Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis, 1 and "Neder" (Kedushass ha'Guf ? Rashi Ibid.), to Kodshei Mizbe'ach. 2

2.

Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim: "Neder" is when a person says 'Harei Alai'; "Nedavah", when he says 'Harei Zeh'. Both of these are permitted for Bedek ha'Bayis, but are not acceptable on the Mizbe'ach. 3


1

Which are not subject to the P'sul of Ba'al-Mum. Ramban: Perhaps the Torah divides them in this way because the majority of Nedavos are donated to Bedek ha'Bayis - See Sh'mos 35:5 and Divrei ha'Yamim 1, 10:17, and the majority of Nedarim for Kodshei Mizbe'ach - See Tehilim, 116:17, 18:19 (See Ramban, who elaborates). In any event, the reason that Neder here refers to Kodshei Mizbe'ach, Rashi explains, is because the Torah adds the words "Lo Yeratzeh", and it is Kodshei Mizbe'ach that come to appease.

2

Targum Onkelos and Targum also seem to explain the Pasuk in this way,

3

The Ramban explains the Pasuk as if it had written 'Nedavah Ta'aseh oso u'leNeder ? (u'Sheneihem le'Mizbe'ach) Lo Yeratzeh'. See also Torah Temimah, citing Temurah, 7b and note 144.

4)

Why does the Torah refer to Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis as "Nedavah" and to Kodshei Mizbe'ach as "Neder"?

1.

Ramban: Refer to 22:23:2:1*. The Oznayim la'Torah cites the Ra'am and elaborates: Bearing in mind that the majority of objects that a person owns are not fit to go on the Mizbe'ach and therefore only eligible for Bedek ha'Bayis, if he wants to give a donation to Hekdesh immediately ? and to avoid transgressing "Lo Yachel Devaro", he will donate an object that is handy and take it straight to the Beis Hamikdash. If on the other hand, he wants to donate a Korban, he will make a Neder, giving himself time to search for sn animal that is fit to go on the Mizbe'ach.

5)

What is the word Nedavah Ta'aseh Oso" coming to preclude?

1.

Temurah, 7b: To extrapolate "Oso" 'Atah Matfis leBedek ha'Bayis, ve'I Atah Matfis Temimim le'Bedek ha'Bayis' ? rendering the declaration of a blemishless animal to Bedek ha'Bayis a Chiyuv Asei. 1 .


1

See Torah Temimah, note 141.

6)

Why is it permitted to dedicate Ba'alei-Mumin to Bedek ha'Bayis?

1.

Seforno: Because they are not Kadosh Kedushas ha'Guf (an intrinsic Kedushah); 1 only Kedushas Damm (a Kedushah that requires them to be redeemed) at which point they go out to Chulin._


1

Which is not subject to redemption ? unless it obtains a blemish.

7)

Why does the Pasuk see fit to permit donating Ba'alei-Mumin to Bedek ha'Bayis?

1.

Seforno: Because we would otherwise have thought that, since the above-mentioned blemishes are blatantly visible, it is not fitting to donate them even to Bedek ha'Bayis. 1


1

Seeing as, when all's said and done, it is for the needs of the Beis-ha'Mikdash.

8)

Having already stated "Lo le'Ratzon" in Pasuk 20, why does the Torah repeat here "Lo Yeratzeh"?

1.

Menachos, 25a: To teach us that even the Tzitz is not Meratzeh for the sin of Ba'alei-Mumin.

9)

What if someone is Makdish a Ba'al-Mum Kodshei Mizbe'ach?

1.

Temurah, 5b: From the words "Lo Yeratzeh" we extrapolate it is not sccepted but it is Kadosh. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 145 as to the procedure with a Ba'al-Mum that is Kadosh Kedushas ha'Guf.

10)

R. Shimon says that a Kalut calf born from a cow is forbidden to people. If so, we do not need a Pasuk to forbid it for a Korban?

1.

Riva citing R"M of Kutzi: It is taught due to "Nedavah Ta'aseh oso". One might have thought that it is forbidden even for Bedek ha'Bayis.

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