1)

Why does the Torah write "ve'Im be'Einav Amad ... " rather than "ve'Amad be'Einav" (See ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah)?

1.

Sifra: To include 'the eye' of the Kohen's son or Talmid. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 152. Oznayim la'Torah: The Chachamim Darshened this here, and not earlier, in Pasuk 5, in connection with Baheres, nor did the Torah insert it in Pasuk 34, in connection with the first Hesger, because it is only here, where the Kohen left two hairs on the perimiter of the Nesek that anybody other than himjself can search, whereas in the other two locations, where he left no visible Si'man, it is only he who can examine the Nesek, in order to compare its current situation with the original one.

2)

Why does the Torah need to insert the (otherwise suprerluous) phrase "Lo Yevaker ... "?

1.

Sifra: To teach us that, in the event that the Nesek has spread after being declared Tahor and two yellow have also grown inside it, the Kohen does not declare the Metzora a Muchlat for the yellow hairs as well - seeing as he is Tamei anyway. 1


1

Sifra: 'she'Ein Machlitin es ha'Muchlat.' And by the same token, 'Ein Masgirin es ha'Musgar, ve'Ein Masagirin es ha'Muchlat ve'Ein Machlitin es ha'Musgar be'Nisakim' - Sifra.,

3)

Why must the Torah write that if it spread, he is Tamei? Why can we not extrapolate that from Pasuk 34?

1.

Da'as Zekenim 1 : Because we might have thought that Pasuk 34 discusses when there is no black hair, and we extrapolate that, in such a case it is Tamei if it spread. The current Pasuk therefore teaches that, if it spreads, it is Tamei in every case,.

2.

Sifra: The Torah is pointing out that yellow hairs without spreading and spreading without yellow hairs is a Si'man Tum'ah.


1

It seems that this is his intention; perhaps some words are missing. (PF)

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