Seeing as the Neveilah of a Tahor animal is not Metamei via eating (as will be clarified in Vayikra 22:8), what is the Torah saying here?
Rashi, Ramban (citing Nidah, 42b) and Rashbam (Ibid.): The Torah is teaching us here that the Shi'ur of touching and carrying a Neveilah is a k'Zayis 1 (which is the Shi'ur Achilah).
Rashbam #2: It is teaching us that sometimes, eating Neveilah 2 without touching it renders a person Tamei.
See Sifsei Chachamim. The Torah Temimah, citing Me'ilah, 16b, learns it from Pasuk 41.
i.e. Nivlas Of Tahor (See Vayikra 22:8 [Rashbam]).
How is it possible to eat a piece of Neveilah without touching or carrying it?
Rashi: It is possible there where Reuven's friend sticks the food into his (Reuven's) throat.
Seeing as someone who carries Neveilah becomes Tamei, why does the Torah see fit to insert someone who merely touches it?
Having already taught us the Din of touching and carrying a Neveilah (above in Pasuk 24 & 25), why does the Torah repeat it here?
Ramban #2 (citing Toras Kohanim): The earlier Parshah is referring to the Tum'ah of Ever min ha'Chai, the current one, to Tum'as Neveilos. 2
Why does the Torah insert "ha'Ochel mi'Nivlasah, and why here by a Kosher animal?
Ramban #1: To teach us that the Tum'ah is not greater due to the fact that he also ate it - and it mentions it here 1 because one is more likely to 'mistakenly' eat it, bearing in mind that the animal was Shechted. 2
