Bearing in mind that they burnt the goat and did not eat it anywhere else, why did Moshe need to add "bi'Mekom ha'Kodesh"?
Rashi: It refers to another question that he asked the sons of Aharon
What was Moshe referring to when he said "ve'Osah Nasan lachem Laseis es Avon ha'Eidah"?
Rashi, Seforno and Rashbam: He was referring to the goat of the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh (which atoned for Tum'as Mikdash ve'Kodashav
'Kohanim Ochlim yu'Ba'alim Miskaprim'
Why was Moshe upset that one goat was burned? [At most] four Kohanim cannot eat three Chata'os in one day!
Rashi: Their eating brings Kaparah only regarding Se'ir Rosh Chodesh. (They should have eaten it first.)
Toras Moshe (in Pasuk 19): They should have eaten at least a k'Zayis [of each] 1 , since then the owners get Kaparah.
Kol Mevaser (2:28:37) infers that the Rambam agrees. Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 5) asked how four Kohanim (like the opinion in Zevachim, 101a that Pinchas was already a Kohen) ate four goats, and left this difficult. (Perhaps there is a printing mistake; the text should say 'two goats', or 'how could they eat three goats.' In any case, what is his source that the other goats were totally eaten? Perhaps he holds that the entire Chatas must be eaten for full Kaparah, and if any part was burned, it is as if all was burned! - PF)
Why did Moshe ask why they didn't eat the Chatas "bi'Mekom ha'Kodesh"? They did not eat it at all?
