Why does the Torah write "ka'Eis Machar" (and not just 'Machar', as it did by Makas Dever - See Pasuk 5)?


Rashi: Moshe made a niche in the wall, 1 and said to Par'oh that the following day, when the sun reaches that niche, the hail will begin to fall. 2


Oznayim la'Torah: Which it was possible to do seeing as Makas Barad occurred by day, but was possible to do by Makas Bechoros, since it occurred by night


What are the implications of the term "Kaveid Me'od"?


Oznayim la'Torah: If the hail would merely have destroyed the trees, the term "Kaveid" would have been applicable; now that it contained fire which burned the broken pieces, it became "Kaveid Me'od".


Why does the Torah add "be'Mitzrayim" - here and in Pasuk 24?


Ramban: This suggests that there were plagues of hail that were just as heavy as this one, 1 and it is only in Egypt, where it never rains, and where hail was a mind-boggling phenomenon, that the plague was unique. 2


Ramban: Such as that in Yehoshua (10:11), and that of S'dom, where it rained sulfur, salt and fire. See Ha'azinu, 29:22.


The Ramban queries the Midrash which states that there was never a plague like this one, neither in Egypt nor in the entire world.


The current Pesukim relate what Hashem instructed Moshe to say to Par'oh. Why does the Torah not inform us that Moshe passed on the message?


Ramban: The Torah often does this; it tells one half of the story, and takes the other half for granted. 1


Also refer to 10:1:4:1.

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