hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah say "Hukam ha'Mishkan", implying that it erected itself?

1.

Rashi: Refer to 39:33:1:1**.

2)

Why does the Torah not describe the erection of the Mishkan and the Avodah during the Shiv'as Yemei ha'Miluim (from the twenty-third of Adar until Rosh Chodesh Nisan)?

1.

Ramban: In fact, from "Vayakem Moshe es ha'Mishkan" 1 and onwards is referring to all eight days of the Milu'im.


1

In Pasuk eighteen.

3)

Why does Torah mention not record the anointing of the Mishkan and all the Keilim? (even though they were mentioned in the instructions, just a few Pesukim earlier)?

1.

Ramban: Bearing in mind that Moshe could not perform the Avodah with the Keilim before they had been anointed, 1 what the Pasuk must mean when it writes 2 that Moshe 'arranged the loaves', 'lit the Menorah' and 'brought the Ketores', it must mean that he placed the Keilim 3 in order to do so - after he had anointed them. 4


1

Since it was the anointing that sanctified them (Ramban).

2

In Pasuk 23, 25 & 27, respectively.

3

As mentioned in the previous Pesukim.

4

The question remains however, why the Torah does not mention it?

4)

And why does the Torah record here neither the anointing of Aharon and his sons nor the Korbanos of the Milu'im that they brought?

1.

Ramban: Because the command to actually go ahead with it was iddued only after Moshe completed the Avodah 1 - in Parshas Vayikra 8:2. 2


1

Presumably on the twenty-third of Adar (See Rav Chavel's footnotes).

2

And which is duly recorded there.

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