hebrew
1)

Seeing as one may not afflict any fellow-Jew, why does the Torah mention specifically a widow and an orphan?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: Because, on account of their vulnerability, people tend to take advantage of them. 1


1

Refer also to 22:20:2:4.

2)

Why does the Pasuk add the word "Kol Almanah ... "?

1.

Ramban: To incorporate in the prohibition a widow who is wealthy - because her tears too, flow easily and she is in a constant state of distres.

3)

What are the connotations of "Lo Se'anun"?

1.

Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means "Do not torment ... ". 1


1

Rashbam: Like "Lema'an Anoso be'Sivlosam", in in Sh'mos, 1:11.

4)

Why does the Torah begin (here) and end (in Pasuk 23) in the plural, and speak in the singular in Pasuk 22)?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: It is referring to an individual who oppresses a Yasom or an Almanah, but includes Beis-Din

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