hebrew
1)

What is the meaning of "ve'Chi Yefateh Ish ... "?

1.

Rashi: It means that he talks to her into doing what he wants.

2.

Ramban: It means slyly convincing her to carry out his wishes - either via words, money or lies. 1


1

Though the word can also refer to convincing a person sraightforwardly (See Ramban, who elaborates at great length on the word). Both Rashi and the Ramban claim that their respective explanations coincide with that of Targum Onkelos; the latter adds that it is also synonymous with that of Targum Yonasan.

2)

What are the implications of "Besulah"?

1.

Kesuvos, 38a: "Besulah", 've'Lo Be'ulah'

3)

What is the meaning of "Mahor Yimharenah lo le'Ishah"?

1.

Rashi #1 (citing the Mechilta) and Targum Yonasan: It refers to the fifty Shekel (two hundred Zuz) Kesubah 1 that a man writes for his wife who is a Besulah and then he is obligated to marry her.

2.

Ramban: It means that he must send her gifts 2 like the gifts (Sivlonos) that a man sends his betrothed. 3

3.

Targum Onkelos: It means that he is obligated to marry her.

4.

Kidushin, 46a: It means that he should betroth her with the consent of her father. 4


1

The Ramban maintains that Kesubah is only mi'de'Rabbanan. However, the opinion that considers it d'Oraysa proves it from this Pasuk. See Kesuvos, 10a.

2

With the intention of marrying her, provided the girl and her father agree. See Ramban, who elaborates on the root of the word "Mohar".

3

See Targum Onkelos here and in Bereishis 32:12 (Ramban).

4

See Torah Temimah, note 163.

4)

Why does the Torah add the word "le'Ishah"?

1.

Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:1: To confine the Din of K'nas to a girl who is subject to Kidushin


1

See Torah Temimah, note 164.

5)

What are the implications of "Lo le'Ishah"?

1.

Mechilta: It implies that he may only betroth her 1 if she is permitted to him, but not if she is an Almanah to a Kohen Gadol, a Gerushah or Chalutzah to a Kohen Hedyot or a Mamazeres or a Nesinah to a Yisrael.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 165.

6)

Why does the Torah not write "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" like it does by Oneis?

1.

Kesuvos, 40a: Because, unlike by Oneis: he is not obligated to marry her


1

See Torah Temimah, note 162.

7)

Why does the Torah not obligate a Mefateh to marry the girl he seduced and never divorce her like it does by Oneis?

1.

Ramban: Because, since the girl agreed to have relations with him, she is partially to blame, and a monetary K'nas will suffice. 1


1

See Ramban who elaborates.

8)

Why does the Torah not insert the word "Na'arah" here, like it does by a rapist?

1.

Ramban: It inserts it by Oneis to preclude a Bogeres, whom we might otherwise have thought is also subject to Kenas, since she was raped; whereas by Mefateh, who condescended to have relations with him, it is obvious that a Bogeres, who is no longer in her father's domain (like a Na'arah is), is not subject to K'nas.

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