What is the meaning of "ve'Chi Yefateh Ish ... "?
Rashi: It means that he talks to her into doing what he wants.
Ramban: It means slyly convincing her to carry out his wishes - either via words, money or lies. 1
Though the word can also refer to convincing a person sraightforwardly (See Ramban, who elaborates at great length on the word). Both Rashi and the Ramban claim that their respective explanations coincide with that of Targum Onkelos; the latter adds that it is also synonymous with that of Targum Yonasan.
What are the implications of "Besulah"?
Kesuvos, 38a: "Besulah", 've'Lo Be'ulah'
What is the meaning of "Mahor Yimharenah lo le'Ishah"?
Rashi #1 (citing the Mechilta) and Targum Yonasan: It refers to the fifty Shekel (two hundred Zuz) Kesubah 1 that a man writes for his wife who is a Besulah and then he is obligated to marry her.
Targum Onkelos: It means that he is obligated to marry her.
Kidushin, 46a: It means that he should betroth her with the consent of her father. 4
The Ramban maintains that Kesubah is only mi'de'Rabbanan. However, the opinion that considers it d'Oraysa proves it from this Pasuk. See Kesuvos, 10a.
With the intention of marrying her, provided the girl and her father agree. See Ramban, who elaborates on the root of the word "Mohar".
See Torah Temimah, note 163.
Why does the Torah add the word "le'Ishah"?
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:1: To confine the Din of K'nas to a girl who is subject to Kidushin
See Torah Temimah, note 164.
What are the implications of "Lo le'Ishah"?
Mechilta: It implies that he may only betroth her 1 if she is permitted to him, but not if she is an Almanah to a Kohen Gadol, a Gerushah or Chalutzah to a Kohen Hedyot or a Mamazeres or a Nesinah to a Yisrael.
See Torah Temimah, note 165.
Why does the Torah not write "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" like it does by Oneis?
Kesuvos, 40a: Because, unlike by Oneis: he is not obligated to marry her
See Torah Temimah, note 162.
Why does the Torah not obligate a Mefateh to marry the girl he seduced and never divorce her like it does by Oneis?
Ramban: Because, since the girl agreed to have relations with him, she is partially to blame, and a monetary K'nas will suffice. 1
See Ramban who elaborates.
Why does the Torah not insert the word "Na'arah" here, like it does by a rapist?
Ramban: It inserts it by Oneis to preclude a Bogeres, whom we might otherwise have thought is also subject to Kenas, since she was raped; whereas by Mefateh, who condescended to have relations with him, it is obvious that a Bogeres, who is no longer in her father's domain (like a Na'arah is), is not subject to K'nas.