Having said "ve'Yom ha'Shevi'i", why does the Torah add "Shabbos la'Hashem Elokecha"?
Rashi: To teach us to observe Shabbos in honor of Hashem (and not for one's personal pleasure).
Mechilta: "ve'Yom ha'Shevi'i" is a warning against doing Meelachah in the day, and "Shabbos la'Hashem Elokecha", against doing Melachah on Friday night. 3
Yerushalmi, Shabbos, 15:3: 'like Hashem'
What is the definition of Melachah with regard to Shabbos?
Shabbos, 49b: "Melachah" incorporates thirty-nine Melachos corresponding to the thirty-nine times tha "Melachah", "Melachto" and "Meleches" appear in the Torah. 1
Incorporating all the major Melachos that were performed in connection with the construction of the Mishkan
Whaat are the implications of "Lo Sa'aseh Kol Melachah"?
Shabbos, 120a: It implies that causing a Melachah to be performed is permitted. 1
Yerushalmi Shabbos, 2:1: It implies that if Melechah was performed automatically, 2 one may benefit from it.
Shabbos, 117b: It precludes blowing the Shofar and removing bread (Redi'as ha'Pas) from the oven, which are Chochmos and not Melachos. 3
Pesachim, 47b: It is an Azharah against Muktzah on Shabbos. 4
Seeing as one's grown-up children are included in the prohibition, what does the Torah mean when it writes "Atah u'Vincha u'Vitecha"?
Rashi, Ramban and Seforno: With reference to Ketanim, who min ha'Torah, are not included in the Mitzvos, the Torah here is issuing a prohibition against allowing them to perform a Melachah on behalf of their parents 1 on Shabbos. 2
Seeing as Avadim and Shefachos have the same Din as women, why does the Torah see fit to warn their masters?
Ramban #1: Since Avadim are under the jurisdiction of their masters, the Torah holds the latter responsible to keep them in check.
Ramban #2: Because Hashem is saying the Aseres ha'Dibros to Yisrael and not to the Avadim.
Why does the Torah warn grown-ups concerning children and masters concerning Avadim, something that it does not do by any other Mitzvah?
Oznayim la'Torah: a. In order to preserve the union between Shabbos and Yisrael; 1 b.Because Shabbos, which is the foundation of Emunah, has many facets (Melachos) to it, and it therefore equires the parents to teach it to their children and masters, to their Avadim and Shefachos 2
Oznayim la'Torah: Whereas very weekday has a partner, The partner of Shabbos is Yisrael
What are the ramifications of " ... u'Vehemt'cha"?
Shabbos, 153b & 154a: It is a La'av against Mechamer (making an animal work - leading it when it is laden) on Shabbos. 1
Rosh: One may not lend one's animal to a non-Jew (to work on Shabbos, for he is commanded that his animal rest. If he lent it before Shabbos, he must make the animal Hefker.
Rosh: Even though there is no Misah for Mechamer, it is not subject to Malkos, because the same La'av warns against doing Melachah, which is subject to Misas Beis-Din.
Is one obligated to stop one's animal from picking grass to eat on Shabbos.*
Oznayim la'Torah (citing R. Tam in Shabbos, Shaabbos, 122a): No! Because as far as the animal is concerned, that is not in the category of "Lema'an Yanu'ach", but is rather a Tz'ar. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.
To which sort of Ger is the Pasuk referring?
Ramban #1: It is referring to a Ger Toshav, 1 who has undertaken to keep the seven Mitzvos b'nei No'ach. He is not obligated to keep Shabbos, but is forbidden to perform Melachos on behalf of a Yisrael. 2
Ramban #2 (citing the Mechilta) and Rosh: Here 3 it refers to a Ger Tzedek.
Whom the Gemara in Avodah-Zarah (64b) refers to as 'Ger Ochel Neveilos' (See Ramban).
Ramban: Just like a minor and an animal. It is later in Sh'mos (23:12) that the Torah issues a warning against Chilul Shabbos to a Ger Tzedek.
Why does the Torah see fit to mention a Ger, something that it does not do by any of the other Dibros?
Rosh: Even though he is a full-fledged Yisrael, who accepted all the Mitzvos, we might have thought that Shabbos is so precious to Hashem that it is confined to those who were conceived in Kedushah.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because it is the only one of the Aseres ha'Dibros that he was forbiddden to keep before he converted, on pain of death. So the Torah is telling us that now not only is he permitted to keep Shabbos, but he is Chayav Misah if he doesn't! 1
See Oznayim la'Torah.
Why does the Torah add the words "Asher bi'She'arecha"?