Why did Hashem give the Aseres ha'Dibros with the Name Elokim?
Rashi: Because it is Midas ha'Din, and therefore implies that the Aseres ha'Dibros are obligatory, and that not keeping them is subject to punishment. 1
As opposed to certain other Mitzvos, which are voluntary, and which are therefore not punishable (Rashi).
What are the connotations of "Kol ha'Devarim"?
Rashi: It implies that Hashem said all the Aseres ha'Dibros simultaneously. 1
Something that a human-being cannot possibly do (Rashi).
Rashi (citing the Sifri) writes that Hashem said all the Aseres ha'Dibros simultaneously. If so, why does it say "Anochi" and "Lo Yihyeh Lecha" in the first person, and the remaining eight in the third person (implying that only the first two Dibros were said simultaneously, but not the rest)??
Why did the Torah add the word "Leimor"?
Rashi: To teach us that they acknowledged the positive commands with a 'Yes!' and the negative ones, with a 'No!' 1
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashi writes that Hashem said all Aseres ha'Dibros to Yisrael. Above (19:19), he said that Yisrael heard from Him only "Anochi" and "Lo Yihyeh Lecha"!
Moshav Zekenim: "Anochi" and "Lo Yihyeh Lecha" Yisrael heard only from Hashem. The others they heard from Moshe, and Hashem amplified his voice.
Rashi writes that Hashem said all Aseres ha'Dibros at once. Why do we say (e.g. Rashi Bamidbar 15:22, Makos 24a) that [only] "Anochi" and "Lo Yihyeh Lecha" were said at once?
Moshav Zekenim: These two Yisrael understood (Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim
The Zohar (2 Yisro 81b) implies like this, and some cite this from the Mechilta; our text does not say so. (PF)
Rashi writes that Hashem said all Aseres ha'Dibros at once. How could Yisrael hear them? Even one at a time they were not able to hear!
Moshav Zekenim: Initially, Hashem said all 10 at once to Moshe. When He wanted to say them to Yisrael, they were able to hear only the first two.
Rashi (citing the Sifri) asked, since Hashem said all 10 ha'Dibros at once, why does it say "Anochi" and "Lo Yihyeh Lecha"? Surely Moshe needed to say them, and they needed to be written, so we will know that what they are!
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim: He asks why Moshe wrote them as separate verses, and not all in one verse. He answers, because Hashem repeated each by itself.
Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim, both citing R. Baruch, Riva, Rosh: He asks why these two are in the first person, 1 unlike the other eight, which are in the third person. R. Baruch - also, according to the Trup 2 they are in one verse and in the same Parshah, and each other Dibur is in its own verse (except for from Lo Sirtzach until Lo Sa'aneh, which are short) and its own Parshah.
Mizrachi #1: He asks why Hashem repeated them.
Rosh, citing Ramban: They are in the first person because they are primary