hebrew
1)

What does "Va'ta'an lahem Miri'am" mean?

1.

Rashi: It means that Miri'am sang and the women sang after her.

2)

Why does the Torah write "Va'tya'an lahem Miri'am" and not 'Va'tashir' (as it does by Moshe and the men [See Targum Yonasan])?

1.

Due to the Isur of 'Kol Ishah, it is possible that Miri'am made a point of chanting 1 rather than singing like the men. 2


1

Others explain that that is why they took drums (See Ma'ayanah shel Torah), and one can add that that is why the women left the camp to sing the Shirah in the desert.

2

See also Oznayim la'Torah, who, based on the fact that the Pasuk speaks in the masculine ("Va'ta'an lahem" and "Shiru", explains that she was merely encouraging the men to sing and not singing with the women.

3)

What exactly did Miriam sing with the women?

1.

Rashi (citing the Mechilta): Miriam sang with the women what Moshe sang with the men.

2.

Ramban: They sang the first Pasuk only. 1


1

Refer to 15:19:1:4*.

Chumash: Perek: Pasuk:
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