Why can the "Shiv'as Yamim Matzos Tocheilu" not be taken literally?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because then "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos"
What kind of Matzos is the Torah referring to?
Pesachim, 35a: Matzos made of dough that would become Chametz (by rising) if not kept in check
Wheat, barley, rye, oats and splt.
How do we reconcile this Pasuk ("Shiv'as Yamim Matzos Tocheilu") with the Pasuk in Re'ei, 16:8 "Sheishes Yamim Matzos Tocheilu"?
Rashi (ciing the, Mechilta): From the latter Pasuk we learn that there is no obligation to eat Matzah on the seventh day of Pesach. 1 And since the current Pasuk writes seven days - comparing the six days to the seventh, it teaches us that the non-obligation extends to all seven days. 2 This leaves us with the obligation to eat Matzos only on the first night, which we learn from Pasuk 18 "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos". 3
Pesachim, 38b: This Pasuk 4 teaches us that one nan only be Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Matzos that can be eaten for seven days - to preclude Chalos Todah and Rekikei (wafers of a) Nazir
Though the Isur of eating Chametz remains (Rashi).
Rashi: This is based on the principle 'Kol Davar she'Hayah bi'Chelal, ve'Yatza min ha'Kelal Lelamed, Lo Lelamed Al Atzmo Yatza, Ela Lelamed Al ha'Kelal Kulo Yatza'. See Sifsei Chachamim.
Which is otherwise superfluous. See Sifsei Chachamim. See also Ba'al ha'Turim on Pasuk 18.
Bearing in mind the Pasuk "Shiv'as Yamim Matzos Tocheilu", how do we know that the prohibition against eating Chametz applies at night-time as well?
Mechilta: From Pasuk 18, which with regards to eating Matzah "be'Arba'ah-Asar Yom la'Chodesh ba'Erev ... Ad Yom ha'Echad ve'Esrim la'Chodesh ba'Erev"
What are the implicarions of the word "ba'Yom"?
Pesachim, 5a: It implies that the Mitzvah of Biy'ur Chametz musr be performed during the day (of the fourteenth). 1
Why does the Torah insert the word "Ach"?
Pesachim, 5a: "Ach", 'Chalak'
See Torah Temimah, note 122.
What exactly, does "Tashbisu" entail?
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: "Tashbisu" means 'to nullify' (to declare null and void), not 'to destroy it'.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "ba'Yom ha'Rishon"?
Da'as Zekenim: On the first day (Yom Tov), you already eradicated Se'or [the day before]. This is like "va'Ychal Elokim ba'Yom ha'Shevi'i."
Pesachim, 5a: It can only mean on the fourteenth, since the Torah writes in Pasuk 19 "Shiv'as Yamim Se'or Lo Yimatzei be'Vateichem", in which case the Chametz nust have been cleared from house before the advent of Yom-Tov. 3
It cannot mean on Yom-Tov itself, seeing as the Torah in Sh'mos (37:25) forbids being in possession of Chametz when slaughtering the Korban Pesach (Rashi, Ibid).
Pesachim (Ibid.): Nor can "Ach ba'Yom ha'Rishon ... " come to include the night of the fifteenth for Biy'ur Chametz, since, from the fact that, in Pasuk 19, the Torah compares the Isur of 'Lo Yimatzei' to the Mitzvah of eating Matzah, and in Pasuk 20, the Isur of eating Chametz to the Mitzvah of eating Matzah
Why does the Torah begin with "Se'or" and end with "Chametz"?
Beitzah, 7b: To compare Chametz to Se'or (yeast) with regard to the Shi'ur of a k'Zayis. 1
Even though the Chimutz (leaven) of yeast is more powerful than that of Chametz. See Torah Temimah.
What is the meaning of "Tashbisu"? How does one carry it out?
Rashi (in Pesachim, 4b: "Tashbisu" incorporates 'Bitul' - declaring it null and void.
Pesachim, 27b: It means 'destroy' in any way that one can
Lechatchila however it is preferable to burn it
What does "Kol" come to include?
Pesachim, 43a: It comes to include women in the Isur of Chametz. 1
Pesachim, 43a: We would otherwise have exempted them, since the Torah compares the Isur Chametz ro the MItavah of Achilas Matzah, from which women ought to be Patur since it is a Mitzvas Asei she'ha'Zeman Geramah'. See Torah Temimah, note 31.
What level of Chametz is subject to Kareis?
Pesachim, 43a: On pure Chametz one is Chayav Kareis, on a mixture of Chametz and other food, one transgresses the La'av of "Kol Machmetzes Lo Socheilu" Pasuk 20).
Why does the Torah add the words "ha'Nefesh Ha'hi"?
Rashi: To teach us that one is only Chayav Kareis if one eats Chametz be'Meizid, but not be'Shogeg. 1
Chulin, 120a: "ha'Nefesh" comes to incorporate someone who drinks Chametz in the Chiyuv Kareis. 2
Bearing in mind the Pasuk in Vayikra (22:3) which indicates that Kares means cut off from before Hashem (i.e. wherever Hashem is), why, here as well as by every other Kares in the Torah, does the Torah insert the word "mi'Yisrael" or "me'Adas Yisrael" or "Mitoch ha'Kahal" or "me'Ameha" or "mi'Kerev Amah" - implying that the Soul that sinned can go and join another nation?
Sifsei Kohen on the Torah, Bamidbar 19:13: The source of the souls of the Jewish People is the Creator, and thus the entire collection of Jewish Souls is actually One, just as the Creator is One. Any soul cut off from the Jewish People is thus cut off from the Oneness of Hashem.
Malbim (here): That is why the Torah writes once (in Emor) "mi'Lefanai Ani Hashem". The Torah means to clarify that Kares does not leave the option 'join' the destiny of a different nation; the person is cut off entirely.
What is the significance of the juxtaposition of "ve'Nishresah" to "Ki Kol Ochel Chametz"?
Pesachim, 43a: It teaches us that the penalty of Kareis is confined to someone who eats pure Chametz, but does not apply to a mixture of Chametz, which remains an ordinary La'av.
Why does the Torah insert "ve'Nichresah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi before "mi'Yom ha'Rishon ... " instead of after it?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because then it would have impled that one is only Chayav Kareis if one eats Chametz for the entire duration of seven days.
Why does the Torah add the words "ha'Nefesh ha'Hi"?
Rashi: To restrict the Chiyuv Kareis to some who eats Chametz be'Meizid. 1
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that this is 'Davar she'Hayah bi'Chlal, v'Yatza..." Here, the seventh day was not taught!
Refer to 12:15:152:2,3.
Moshav Zekenim (18), citing R. Yom Tov: The seventh day is equated to the six. The Mechlita said Davar she'Hayah bi'Chlal, v'Yatza - this is imprecise. 1
Moshav Zekenim calls this 'Gimgum' (unclear).
Rashi writes that this is 'Davar she'Hayah bi'Chlal, v'Yatza..." Always, the Klal and Prat are similar. Here, the Klal is Isur and the Prat is Heter!
Hadar Zekenim citing Ri of Ivra: Since it says "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos", this implies that afterwards it is not a Chovah. This is unlike Rashi.
Hadar Zekenim citing R. Yom Tov: Here, the Klal is not Isur, for it is not clear whether the seven days are Chovah or Reshus. The Prat reveals that it is Reshus.
Hadar Zekenim: Some 1 explain that "uva'Yom ha'Shevi'i Atzeres... Lo Sa'aseh Melachah" (Devarim 16:8) was bi'Chlal, v'Yatza, (Before this (verse 3), it says "Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos.") The Torah mentioned Yom ha'Shevi'i only for the Isur Melachah, but not for the Mitzvah to eat Matzah!
Riva citing R"A: Here the Prat (the seventh day) was not taught explicitly, but it is learned from the Klal, so it is like Isur.
Rashi writes that just like six days are Reshus, all seven days are Reshus, just the first night is Chovah. We should say that just like the first night is Chovah, all six days are Chovah! If there are two ways to learn, we learn the stringent way!
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Tam: If so, the Torah should have written only six for Chovah, and seven for Reshus. Why did it teach also "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos"? We must say that it is to teach that also six days are Reshus. 1
Hadar Zekenim, Riva: It is more reasonable that seven days teaches about six days, for both of them say "Yamim", and not nights. Also, ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos cannot teach about all seven days, for since the Torah taught six and seven, you are forced to say that the seventh is Reshus!
Moshav Zekenim: This is difficult. Let the Torah write only "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos", and seven days for Reshus! Riva - we would say that the other nights are Reshus, but all the days are Chovah. Or, I would not know which night is obligatory; Sheshes Yamim teaches that the first night is obligatory.