1)

Bearing in mind that, following Makas Bechoros, Pharaoh would beseech Moshe and Aharon to take Yisrael out of Egypt (12:31), what exactly did Moshe mean when he told Pharaoh that he would never see him again?

1.

Ramban #1: Moshe meant literally, that he would never see him again - because, when Pharaoh later beseeched Moshe and Aharon to take Yisrael out of Egypt, he stood outside their house and cried out to them, but did not enter.

2.

Seforno: Moshe meant that he would not see him again because Pharaoh was destined to die at the Yam-Suf, 1 and after the plague of Makas Bechoros he sent to Moshe and Aharon to implore them to leave - via a messenger. 2

3.

Ramban #2 (citing the Midrash): What Moshe meant was that he would never again go to see Pharaoh in his palace, but rather that Pharaoh would go to him. 3

4.

Targum Yonasan: In response to Pharaoh's threat that if Moshe would continue to issue harsh warnings, he would hand him over to the people who wanted to kill him (Dasan and Aviram), Moshe explained that Hashem had already informed him that they had become impoverished (and were therefore considered as dead). Consequently, it was not thanks to his kindness in not handing him over to them that he prayed to Hashem to remove the plagues, but because he wanted to. Consequently, he no longer needed him and would not see him again, and it was Pharaoh who needed him (and would come to see him). 4

5.

Oznayim la'Torah: There are two kinds of 'Re'iyos Panim' - one simply refers to seeing one's friend or acquaintance; 5 the other, to seeing a king or prince. 6 And it was the latter to which Pharaoh was referring, and to which Moshe responded - not to imply that they would never meet again.


1

Seforno: See 14:16.

2

As Pasuk 11:8 implies; but see Rashi there. Also refer to 11:8:1:1*.

3

See also answer #4.

4

Perush Yonasan.

5

Oznayim la'Torah: As in Bereishis 48:11.

6

Oznayim la'Torah: As in Bereishis 32:9.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

2)

Rashi writes: "'Ken Dibarta' - You spoke well, and at the right time!" What is Rashi adding?

1.

Gur Aryeh: "Ken Dibarta" can mean 'you spoke properly,' as in, "Ken Benos Tzelofchad Doveros" (Bamidbar 27:7). But what Pharaoh said was not so 'proper;' it would have been much better that he concede to Hashem, and free the Bnei Yisrael! Rashi therefore adds, it was 'correct' in the sense that it came at the right time.

3)

Rashi writes: "... It is true that I will never again appear before you." Why does Rashi add, "it is true"?

1.

Gur Aryeh: Moshe's words seemingly imply that he would make sure 1 not to appear before Pharaoh again. But if so, how were Pharaoh's words so "timely" (see 10:29:1.1:1), as it would be Moshe himself who would choose not to appear! Rashi therefore adds that it was true in its own right. 2 Also refer to 10:29:1.3.


1

Moshe said, "'Lo Osif;' i.e., I myself want never again to appear...."

2

Thus, "you spoke correctly and timely," in line with the truth. (EK)

4)

Rashi writes: "... It is true that I will never again appear before you." Did Moshe know this prophetically? The Midrash implies that on the contrary, Hashem now hastened to speak to Moshe while he still stood in Pharaoh's palace (see Rashi to 11:4), so Moshe would not be proven wrong! If so, why did Moshe say this in the first place?

1.

Gur Aryeh #1: Moshe knew prophetically that were he to say, "I will never again appear before you," Hashem would make this happen; that He would appear to Moshe while still in Pharaoh's palace, to preserve the honor of his words. This explains Moshe's speaking in first person, "I will not etc.," since it would happen in his merit. 1

2.

Gur Aryeh #2: Moshe meant only that he would no longer appear in the palace uninvited. Even were Hashem to send him to Pharaoh, he would not go immediately, rather only upon a summons from Pharaoh. 2 Such a summons was indeed what brought on Moshe's prior two appearances - after Arbeh and Choshech - and there was no reason to think that this would change.


1

Gur Aryeh: Nevertheless, Rashi still adds the phrase "... it is true" (see 10:9:1.2:1), because ultimately it was not Moshe's own decision, rather only because Hashem appeared to him there.

2

Gur Aryeh: Surely Moshe would come when summoned; failure to do so would be flouting the kingdom (Mored b'Malchus)! Nevertheless, not all the Egyptian onlookers would know if Moshe had been summoned, or had come of his own accord, and they might assume that Moshe's words were proven untrue. That is why Hashem appeared to Moshe immediately, removing the need for any future appearances at the palace.

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