hebrew
1)

Why did she refer to Yosef as "ha'Eved ha'Ivri" whereas, in Pasuk 14, when she spoke to the members of her household, she referred to him as "ha'Ish ha'Ivri"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah (14): His title 'Eved' was long forgotten to household. When relating the incident to her husband, she wanted to demean Yosef in his eyes as much as possible.

2.

Divrei David: In both cases, she tried to justify why she let herself be secluded with him. (a) He is an Ish (very distinguished); he is not suspected to venture to sin with me. Also Ivri (from Ever, who was very esteemed) adds to his importance. To her husband, she had a greater defense - (b) A slave would never be so bold to do so to his master's wife!

3.

Ha'Emek Davar (14,17): She told her household that he came to lie with her. Whether he is a slave or a free man serving in the house, he is culpable, and the master is culpable for bringing such a man to the house. 1 To Potifar, she said "Eved" - he should not belittle his master's wife! Ivri - a brazen nation that is not humble to its master.


1

Ha'Emek Davar: She called him an Ivri - their nature is hot (licentious). They have a law of fire (Esh Das Lamo" - Devarim 33:2) and are brazen like fire.

2)

Why does it say "Leimor" here, and in verse 19 "when Potifar heard her words Leimor"?

1.

Alshich: He recognized that she fabricated matters in order that people will believe her words. He was angry at her. To cover her shame, he incarcerated Yosef.

2.

Ohr ha'Chayim: She said that the household can testify like she says. Indeed, Potifar got angry only after he heard them confirm her story.

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