Why does Yakov refer to Lavan as 'Lavan ben Nachor' and not 'Lavan ben Besu'el'?


Torah Temimah #1 (based on a ruling of the Terumas ha'Deshen 1 ): Because Besu'el was a Rasha.


Torah Temimah #2 (citing commentaries): Because Besu'el was not so well-known. and had Yakov mentioned ben Besu'el, they may well not have known who he was referring to. 2


Who learns from here that if someone whose father is a Rasha is called up to the Torah, one calls him up by the name of his grandfather - and not just by his name alone, in order not to embarass him.


The Oznayim la'Torah adds that it is quite common for the Torah to refer to someone by his grandfathe's name and not by that of his father.


Why does it say "v'Galelu"?


Rashi (based on Targum Onkelos): They used to do so regularly.


Ha'Emek Davar: They said "they roll" (and not 'we roll') because they were only three, a minority of those who roll it. It says "v'Hishkinu", for each gave to his own flock to drink.

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