Why does the Pasuk insert the (otherwise superfluous) words ?ba?Aretz ha?Hi? and ?ba?Shanah ha?Hi??
Rashi: To inform us that, even though it was not Eretz Yisrael proper 1 (the land of the seven nations), and even though it was a year of famine, Yitzchak enjoyed a bumper harvest (a hundred times more than anticipated).
Seforno: To tell us that HaSh-m's words and blessing - that he should reside in that land and that He would bless him, came true. 2
Moshav Zekenim: It was in Chutz la'Aretz. He went only to seed there, but not to live there.
Which enjoys a special Berachah. It could not be truly Chutz la'Aretz, for HaSh-m told Yitzchak to stay in the land (Hadar Zekenim). Yet it was not the foremost portion of the Land (Gur Aryeh). Compare to Ramban to Shemos 13:5. (CS)
Since the land was in a state of famine, why did Yitzchak bother to sow his fields?
Tosefta (B?rachos, Perek 6): Based on Pasuk 24 "u'Verachticha Vehirbeisi es Zar'acha", Yitzchak understood that B?rachah will only come about through the work of his hands, so he proceeded to plant crops. 1
Seforno: Because Hashem commanded ?Gur ba?Aretz ha?Zos ? ?. 2
What does it mean that [the land] produced "Me'ah She'arim"?
Rashi #1 and Rashbam: It means that they assessed how much it would produce 1 . It produced a hundred times as much.
Rashi #2 (in Kesuvos 112a): It means that the land produced a hundred times more than it did in a regular year. 2
Seforno: His land produduced a hundred times as much as he anticipated for Ma?asros 3 ? in keeping with Hashem?s promise ? in Pasuk #3 ? ?Ve?eheyeh Imcha Va?avorcheka?.
Why does the Torah need to add (the otherwise superfluous) phrase "Va'yevorcheihu Hashem"?
Seforno: Not only did he enjoy a bumper harvest, but he was able to sell his crops at a large profit.
Malbim #1: He ate little, and the food was blessed in his innards, and he was satiated.
Malbim #2: He succeeded in all his endeavors, like the verse, "va'Yehi Ish Matzli'ach" (39:2).
Ha'amek Davar: It was a famine year, and people of the area needed to buy grain from him, unlike the king's desire (refer to 26:11:152:2).
Ohr ha'Chayim: There was no Ayin ha'Ra against him, even though he prospered so much.
Why does the Torah insert "Va'yevorcheihu Hashem" after "Va'yimtza ba?Shanah ha?Hi ? Me'ah She'arim"?
Seforno: Because it was due to the fact that he gave Ma'asros that Hashem blessed him - as the Navi writes in Malachi 3:10 "Havi?u es Kol ha?Ma?aser el Beis ha?Otzar ? Va'harikosi lachem B?rachah Ad B?li Dai.? 1
Oznayim la'Torah: As the Gemara states in Ta'anis, 9a, 'Aser Bishvil she'Tis'asher' (Give Ma'aser in order to become wealthy).
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: It produced 100 times as much as the estimation for Ma'aser. What does this mean?
Chizkuni: Ma'aser (a 10th) of the harvest was 100 times the estimate.
Riva: A Beraisa (Tosefta Berachos 6:8) implies that the entire harvest was 100 times the estimate! Bereishis Rabah (64:6) - he measured the harvest in order to tithe it. 1
Hadar Zekenim: Why would he estimate [the harvest]? Berachah does not rest on what is estimated! 2 It was a famine year, and he estimated how much Ma'aser 3 there will be, in to give to Aniyim promptly.
One should not tithe by estimation (Avos 1:16).
Our text (Ta'anis 8b, Bava Metzia 42a) says 'Madud' (measured). It seems that Hadar Zekenim's text said 'Amud' (estimated). Surely he agrees that also (or all the more so) Berachah does not rest on what is measured; the Gemara says so about what is counted! He must hold that the Torah tells us the amount of the harvest, but Yitzchak himself did not measure it.
Even though it follows that harvest is estimated to be 10 times greater, since this is indirect, it does not inhibit Berachah. (PF) We find that one may count Yisraelim indirectly (e.g. via fingers or lambs - Yoma 22b, from Shmuel I 15:4), even though it is forbidden directly.
Rashi writes: "'One hundred times' - ... it produced 100 times as much as had been projected. But our Sages said, this calculation was for [separating] tithes." It seems there is no contradiction between the two explanations; why does Rashi cite the Midrash of the Sages?
Gur Aryeh: In its simple sense, why did Yitzchak calculate the yield at all? Blessing comes only to that which is hidden, not that which is measured or counted (Ta'anis 8b). Rather, Yitzchak calculated the yield in order to separate Ma'aser.
