Why did Avraham mention earlier (in 24:3) that Hashem was also "G-d of the earth," but omit it here?
Rashi: Refer to 24:3:4:1.
Rashbam: In this Pasuk, Avraham was telling Eliezer that the G-d of the Heaven (Who was his master) would certainly send an angel to guide him. Refer to 24:7:2:1.
Malbim: Hashem alters the arrangement of Mazalos in Shamayim. In Charan, I was Avram, who cannot father children. Hashem brought me here, changed my Mazal, and swore to give the land to my seed. Surely He will arrange that she come to here!
On what basis did Avraham inform Eliezer that HaSh-m would send His angel to guide him?
Rashbam: Since HaSh-m, G-d of the Heaven, brought him to Eretz Kena'an, Avraham knew that He did not want his children to move away from there, in which case He would certainly send His angel to help Eliezer succeed on his mission - in finding a wife in Charan.
Seforno: Avraham was praying to the G-d of the Heaven to send an angel from His Heavenly realm to guide Eliezer, so that it would not be necessary for Yitzchak to go there himself. 1
What is the significance of the double expression "mi?Beis Avi u?me?Eretz Molad'ti"?
Rashi: "mi?Beis Avi" refers to Charan (where Avraham lived), and "Moladti," to Ur Kasdim. where he was born. 1
Ramban and Rashbam: Refer to 24:4:
See Ramban, who refutes this explanation for a number of reasons.
Hashem swore that He would give the land to Avraham?s children by the B?ris bein ha'Besarim (15:18-21), but where did He tell him that He would?
Rashi: "Diber Li" means that Hashem spoke (not 'to me', but) 'about me,' which is what the terms "Li," "Lo" or "Lahem" next to Dibur always mean. 1
Seforno: He said that He would in 21:12. 2
The Ramban however, who disagrees with Rashi, cites a number of Pesukim where "Li," "Lo" and "Lahem" next to Dibur definitely mean 'spoke to....'
The Pasuk there merely says "Ki be'Yitzchak Yikarei l?cha Zara." However, see Bereishis 17:8.
Why did Avraham mention the oath that HaSh-m had made to him?
Seforno 1 : Having sworn to him, HaSh-m would be sure carry out His oath, to see to it that Yitzchak would marry the right woman, to ensure that his oath would be fulfilled. And to that end, He would be bound to send His angel to guide Eliezer.
Ha'amek Davar: What Avraham meant was ?Since it is my birthplace, there should be Hashgachah that she will come, and even If I am not worthy, Hashem's promise will cause it to happen ? even if I forfeited it due to sin, He is bound to fulfill his Shevu'ah?.
What is the significance of the Mal?ach that Hashem would send before Eliezer?
Rashbam (in Pasuk 40): Avrahan knew that, not only would it lead him to Rivkah, but that her familay would agree to give her to him.
Why does it say "Mal'acho," which implies a special angel?
Ha'amek Davar: HaSh-m will send an angel especially for this. He will not use the angel 1 that normally accompanies a person. This is why it says Yishlach, and not Yetzaveh.
Ha'amek Davar: Two angels normally accompany a person, to testify about his actions (Ta'anis 11a). HaSh-m also commands them to guard him.
Why does it say "mi'Sham"?
Ha'amek Davar #1: Be Mekadesh her Stam [to Yitzchak], and do not mention [until later] that she must come to here.
Ha'amek Davar #2: If you cannot get a girl from my family, take a girl from the place.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'From my father's house' - Charan... 'From the land of my birth' (me'Eretz Molad'ti) - Ur Kasdim." But the verse concludes, "Take a wife for my son from there;" was Eliezer to go to Ur Kasdim? (Also refer to 24:4:1.1).
Mizrachi: When Avraham left with his father Terach, on the way to Eretz Kena'an (11:31), his brother Nachor remained behind in Ur Kasdim. Avraham was unaware that Nachor's family now lived in Charan. 1
Gur Aryeh #1: Avraham means, "HaSh-m took me from my father's house in Charan, [and even prior to that from Ur Kasdim] ... and He will help you to take a wife from there [i.e. from Charan]." 2
Gur Aryeh #2: In our Pasuk, if "my father's house" means Charan, then "the land of my birth" means Ur Kasdim. But in 24:4, they are two separate conditions; refer to 24:4:1.1:3.
Gur Aryeh disagrees. See an additional answer in Mizrachi.
Gur Aryeh: Although in 24:4, the word "Molad'ti" refers to family, it cannot mean this in our verse; refer to 24:4:1.1:2. Also see Gur Aryeh to 12:2; refer to 12:2:3.2:1.
Rashi writes: "'Diber Li' - He spoke regarding me... The verb 'Diber' (spoke) cannot be combined with 'Li' (meaning 'to me') ... whereas the verb 'Amar' (said) can be combined with 'to me.'" Why is 'Diber' different than 'Amar'?
Gur Aryeh: The subject of the verb 'Diber' is the speech itself, not the content being conveyed. We cannot say 'Diber Li,' because the listener is not the subject of the verb; rather the term 'Diber Elai' 1 would be appropriate. But the subject of 'Amar' is the idea being expressed, and the listener receives that information, e.g. 'Amar Li.' Therefore, Rashi interprets our verse, "He spoke for my sake."
For example, see later in the Perek (24:30).
