hebrew
1)

Why did Lavan answer before his father Besu'el?

1.

Rashi: Because he was a Rasha.

2.

Ramban (29:5): Because Besu'el was a nonentity.

3.

Ha'Emek Davar: He was a Rasha, but we also infer that Lavan was primary in the house.

2)

What is the significance of the statement "me'Hashem Yatza ha'Davar!"?

1.

Mo'ed Katan, 18b: This teaches us that Shiduchim are made in Heaven. 1

2.

Malbim: Since it was miraculous through Hashgachah, and not through Mazal, we have no free choice to oppose the Hashgachah.


1

Mo'ed Katan (Ibid.): And we learn the same thing from a Pasuk in Nevi'im, in Shoftim, 14:4

3)

What caused Lavan and Besu'el, who were idolaters, to acknowledge that Hashem had orchestrated the above-mentioned events?

1.

Rashi: They realized the truth due to Eliezer's portrayal of the events that had transpired. 1


1

Refer to 24:42:2:1.

4)

What did they mean by "bad or good"?

1.

Rashi: They meant that they were unable to refuse using foul means (via a harsh answer) or fair (via a straight, logical one).

2.

Seforno and Rashbam: they could neither refuse nor uphold the Divine decree (which did not need their acknowledgement). 1


1

Rashbam: Seeing as, with or without their consent, Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, put His plan into action.

5)

What is the significance of the statement "me'Hashem Yatza ha'Davar!"?

1.

Mo'ed Katan, 18b: This teaches us that Shiduchim are made in Heaven. 1


1

Mo'ed Katan (Ibid.): And we learn the same thing from a Pasuk in Nevi'im, in Shoftim, 14:4

6)

רש"י: לא נוכל...למאן...לא על ידי תשובת דבר רע ולא על ידי תשובת דבר הגון: לרש"י "דבר...טוב" פרושו שלא יוכלו למאן ע"י תשובת דבר הגון, ולכאורה יכל לפרש שלא יוכלו לדבר כלל- להסכים או לסרב?

1.

גור אריה: אין טעם שלא יוכלו לדבּר טוב [ולהסכים], אלא כוונתם שאינם יכולים למאן ע"י תשובה הגונה.

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