hebrew
1)

What does the Pasuk mean when it writes that Avraham "took" Yishmael and the other men of his household?

1.

Ohr Ha'Chayim: Bearing in mind that Yishmael was already 13, Avraham took him with words


1

Targum Onkelus also consistently translates any "taking" of people with the term "Devar," from the same root as the word for "speaking." Also refer to 16:3:1:1*. (CS)

2)

What is the significance of the phrase "be'Etzem ha'Yom ha'Zeh" in this Pasuk?

1.

Rashi #1 and Seforno: Avraham performed the Mitzvah immediately, on the same day that he was instructed.

2.

Rashi #2: He was not afraid of those 1 who would try to stop him from fulfilling Hashem's command. That is why the Torah adds that he performed the Mitzvah by day, 2 so that nobody would be able to subsequently claim that, had they known about it, they would not have let him do it.

3.

Moshav Zekenim (to Bereishis 18:1): Even though he did other Mitzvos early, here he waited until midday, for publicity. 3


1

His enemies; according to others, his friends.

2

He did not even delay until nighttime. Refer to 7:13:1:1; refer to 18:1:3:1*.

3

Also see Rashi to Devarim 32:48. (CS)

3)

Why does the Torah see fit to add the words, "like Hashem spoke to him," which seem to add nothing to the conprint?

1.

Ohr Ha'Chayim #1: It is telling us that speaking to them softly (refer to 17:23:1:1) was itself by Divine command.

2.

Ohr Ha'Chayim #2: It teaches us that Avraham did not delay carrying out Hashem's command, thereby demonstrating his Midas ha'Zerizus (alacrity).

3.

Ohr Ha'Chayim #3: The Pasuk is telling us that Avraham fulfilled the Halachah derived from Pasuk 17:13, that only someone who is himself circumcised may circumcise others. 1


1

Refer to 17:13:1:2.

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