Since 'Eretz' is feminine, why does the Torah say "v'Lo Nasa" (which is masculine)?


Rashi and Seforno: What the Torah really means is that the pasture was insufficient, and the [masculine] word "Mir'eh" (pasture) is self-understood.


Why does the Torah repeat the phrase "v'Lo Yachlu Lasheves Yachdav"?


Ha'amek Davar: To teach us that it was not just a matter of a lack of space, but rather, one of bad will on the part of Lot 1 .


He was keen to join up with Avraham - from a distance, but when he came close, it was too much for him.


How can it be that a great land like Eretz Yisrael did not suffice for them?


Riva (verse 7): The verse says that also the Kena'ani and Prizi were in the land. 1


Why doesn't he explain "ha'Aretz" to be the place in which they were living? If all of Eretz Yisrael did not suffice for them, what was the solution to go to different places in Eretz Yisrael? (PF)


רש"י: כמו ולא נשא אותם מרעה הארץ: למה לא פירש כמשמעו שהארץ לא נשאה אותם?


גור אריה: 'ארץ' היא נקבה והפסוק מדבר בלשון זכר.

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