What does the Torah mean when it writes that Lot traveled from the east ("mi'Kedem")?
Rashi: #1: It mans literally that he traveled from the east of Avraham to his west.
Seforno: Lot did not accept Avraham's suggestion to pick the right or the left (where Avraham would have remained close by, as Rashi explained); he opted to move to the west 3 of Avraham, in order to be as far away from Avraham as possible.
Mishnas R. Aharon (Vol. 1, p. 148): Lot did not explicitly say so, but this is the inner source of "he traveled." Had he been properly connected to HaSh-m, he would not have separated from Avraham. He was not concerned about the danger, he aimed solely for wealth.
Chochmah u'Musar (Vol. 2, p. 339): The angel later told Hagar that leaving Avraham's house would be likely to hurt her spiritually (refer to 16:8:1:1*). Since Lot was not concerned about this, it is as if he said, "I do not desire...." Also refer to 2:8:151:1.
Mizrachi asks on Rashi: We know that Sedom is located east of Beis-El. Why would Lot travel west?
Taz (Divrei David): Lot was embarrassed to have Avraham find out about his choice to live in an infamous place of ill-repute. He therefore initially pretended to head west, only to turn and double back eastward at a point far away from Avraham. 1
One may suggest this was later repaid to Lot measure for measure. When escaping from Sedom (19:26), his wife was still looking back eastwards, towards Sedom... (CS)
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Lot traveled from the east' - He travelled from Avraham's location, towards Avraham's west." What is bothering Rashi?