hebrew
1)

What does the Torah mean when it writes that Lot traveled from the east ("mi'Kedem")?

1.

Rashi: #1: It mans literally that he traveled from the east of Avraham to his west.

2.

Rashi #2: It may also mean that he moved away from the One who preceded the world (Hashem), when he declared 1 'I do not desire Avraham or his G-d!' 2

3.

Seforno: Lot did not accept Avraham's suggestion to pick the right or the left (where Avraham would have remained close by as Rashi explained); he opted to move to the west of Avraham, in order to be as far away from Avraham as possible.


1

Mishnas R. Aharon 1 p.148: He did not explicitly say so, but this is the inner source of "he traveled." Had he been properly connected to Hashem, he would not have separated from Avraham. He was not concerned for the danger, solely for wealth.

2

Chachmah u'Musar (2 p.339): The angel told Hagar that leaving Avraham's house is prone to hurt her spiritually (refer to 16:8:1:1*). Since Lot was not concerned for this, it is as if he said "I do not desire..."

2)

רש"י: נסע מאצל אברם וכו': למה מפרש ש"מקדם" נאמר ביחס לאברהם?

1.

גור אריה: לוט לא היה במזרח העולם שנאמר עליו שהוא נסע מקדם, אמנם ניתן לומר שהוא נסע ממזרח למערב, אבל כאן לא כתוב לאן הוא נסע? אלא "מקדם" נאמר ביחס לאברהם. 1


1

יש "קדם" שהוא מוחלט- מזרח העולם, אבל כאן לא עוסקים בכך (שהרי לוט לא היה שם) אלא במזרח יחסי, ומכיון שלא נאמר לאן הוא נסע- לא מדובר כאן על 'מזרח' ביחס למקום אליו פניו מועדות, אלא ביחס לאברהם.

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