What does the Torah mean when it writes that Lot traveled "mi'Kedem" (from the east)?
Rashi: #1: It mans literally that he traveled from the east of Avraham to his west.
Seforno: Lot did not accept Avraham's suggestion to pick the right or the left (where Avraham would have remained close by, as Rashi explained); he opted to move to the west 3 of Avraham, in order to be as far away from Avraham as possible.
Mishnas R. Aharon (Vol. 1, p. 148): Lot did not explicitly say so, but this is the inner source of "he traveled." Had he been properly connected to Hashem, he would not have separated from Avraham. He was not concerned about the danger, he aimed solely for wealth.
Chochmah u'Musar (Vol. 2, p. 339): The angel later told Hagar that leaving Avraham's house would be likely to hurt her spiritually (refer to 16:8:1:1*). Since Lot was not concerned about this, it is as if he said, "I do not desire...." Also refer to 2:8:151:1.
Mizrachi asks on Rashi: We know that Sedom is located east of Beis-El. Why would Lot travel west?
Taz (Divrei David): Lot was embarrassed to have Avraham find out about his choice to live in an infamous place of ill-repute. He therefore initially pretended to head west, only to turn and double back eastward at a point far away from Avraham. 1
One may suggest this was later repaid to Lot measure for measure. When escaping from Sedom (19:26), his wife was still looking back eastwards, towards Sedom... (CS)
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Lot traveled from the east' - He travelled from Avraham's location, towards Avraham's west." What is bothering Rashi?