1)

If the sky was already created on the first day, why does the Torah need to relate here (on the second day), "And Hashem made the sky"?

1.

Rashi: The Torah is not referring here to the initial creation of the sky, 1 but to its completion - its establishment in its correct location in the universe.

2.

Seforno: What Hashem now did was to divide the water into two and to order the lower water to descend into what is now the ocean. The space between the water that was now formed would have been filled by the lower part of the upper water (which had become vaporized, 2 ) only Hashem filled it with the sky. Meanwhile the sky prevented the vapor from descending to the earth, and as the top part of the upper water presses upon the vapor, it causes rain, snow and hail to form, and when the pressure increases, the rain, snow or hail falls. 3


1

Gur Aryeh: Why doesn't Rashi interpret the word "made" literally? According to Rashi, the firmament had already been created on the first day.

2

See also Seforno to 1:6. It is not clear from where the Seforno derives his theory of the vapor.

3

He also speaks of a heated vapor that causes thunder and lightning.

2)

What is the distance between the upper and lower waters?

1.

Maharal (Be'er Ha'Golah, Be'er 6, p. 130): Targum Yonasan (to this verse) says that the Raki'a is three "Eitzba'os" thick, between heaven and the ocean. He does not Refer to the tangible distance [but rather the conceptual or metaphysical distance]. Any separation involves the number 3; an item that serves as a barrier associates with the two items on either side, as well as having its own identity. 1

2.

Chagigah, 16a: A hairs-breadth divided between the upper and the lower waters. 2


1

Similarly, Maharal (ibid. p. 115) writes that when Chazal describe the distance between the levels of the Raki'a, they do not mean in the physical sense.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 29.

3)

Why does the Torah write "me'Al la'Raki'a" (with an extra 'Mem')?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that the upper water was hanging in space (by the command of Hashem), and did not rest on the sky.

4)

Why does the Torah not mention "Ki Tov" on the second day?

1.

Rashi: Because the Torah only inserts it in connection with the aspects of the creation that have been completed, whereas the water would not be completed until the third day. And it writes it twice there; once for the new creation and once for the completion of the water.

2.

Hadar Zekenim (to 1:8) #1: Because Hashem would use the water to destroy the world (in the generation of the flood).

3.

Hadar Zekenim (ibid.) #2: Because Gehinom was created on that day. 1

4.

Hadar Zekenim (ibid.) #3: Because already then, the lower water entered into a lengthy Machlokes 2 with the upper water. And principally, Machlokes has bad connotations. 3


1

See Torah Temimah, note 40.

2

Maharal (Derech Chayim 1:2, p. 24): Although the Mishnah (Avos 5:17) teaches that a Machlokes for the sake of Heaven will endure, it is not the Machlokes itself that will last, but rather Hashem's will [that it be so]. Maharal seems to mean that even if the end goal of the parties to an argument is worthwhile, an argument itself is not, and should not endure (EK).

3

Maharal (Nesivos Olam, Nesiv ha'Shalom, Ch. 2 (end), p. 224): Many of these opinions are cited in the Midrash. "Ki Tov" can only be said regarding that which [ought to] exist [and endure]. Gehinom, on the other hand, represents destruction (He'eder). Likewise, in an argument, each side aims to cancel out the other. See also Maharal (Derech Chayim 5:17, p. 260) and Oznayim la?Torah in Pasuk 6.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

5)

Rashi writes: "'Above the firmament' - ... suspended in the air." Seemingly, Rashi already derived this in the preceding verse (1:6), when he wrote that the firmament was emplaced between the waters (Refer to 1:6:2.1:1)?

1.

Gur Aryeh #1 (to 1:6): Rashi based his commentary to verse 1:6 on what he would write in our verse.

2.

Gur Aryeh #2 (to 1:6): We might have understood that the upper waters were directly on top of the firmament; Rashi comes to inform us that this was not so.

6)

Rashi writes: "[The upper waters were] suspended in the air... and why is the phrase 'It was good' (Ki Tov) not used... ?" Rashi implies that we might have expected the Torah to call it "good," only because the waters were suspended. Why is that so?

1.

Gur Aryeh: If the second day's creation had consisted solely of the firming of the Raki'a, it would not have been a new development that justified saying "Ki Tov." Now that we know that the upper waters were suspended in the air by Hashem's command, which is a great wonder, we would expect the Torah to say "Ki Tov." (Rashi therefore explains that the day's work was not yet finished.)

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