Question: Rashi asks why we recite the Sh'ma before nightfall, as the Gemara explains.

Answer #1: He therefore concludes that K'ri'as Sh'ma she'al ha'Mitah, which we recite after nightfall, is actually the main Sh'ma.

Support from Yerushalmi: And this is borne out by the Yersushalmi, which states that if one recites it earlier, one is not Yotzei.

Question: Why do we then recite the Sh'ma in Shul?

Answer: In order to Daven the Amidah following words of Torah.

Question #1: There is a Kashya on Rashi's explanation however, seeing as one tends to recite only the first Parshah of the Sh'ma (before going to sleep), as we will learn later (60:).

Question #2: Furthermore, K'ri'as Sh'ma shel Arvis requires the recital of two B'rachos before it and two B'rachos after it?

Question #3: Moreover, we only recite the K'ri'as Sh'ma she'al ha'Mitah in order to keep the Mazikin (demons) away, as we wil learn hortly (on Daf 5.)?

Question #4: And finally, according to Rashi, the Halachah is like Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi, who says that 'Chazal fixed the Tefilos in the middle' - between K'ri'as Sh'ma shel Shachris and K'ri'as Sh'ma shel Arvis ...

Question #4 (cont.): Whereas we pasken like Rebbi Yochanan, who rules (on Daf 4:) that 'A ben Olam ha'Ba is someone who places Ge'ulah (even of Arvis) next to Tefilah?

Answer #2: Therefore Rabeinu explains that, on the contrary, the K'ri'as Sh'ma that we recite in Shul is the main one .

Question: If so, why do we recite the Sh'ma when it is still daytime?

Answer: Because we rule like Rebbi Yehudah, who says in Perek Tefilas ha'Shachar (Daf 26.) that 'The time to Daven Minchah lasts until P'lag ha'Minchah' (an hour and a quarter before nightfall), immediately after which the time to Daven Ma'ariv falls due.

Question: If that is so, how can we Daven Minchah close to nightfall, even after P'lag ha'Minchah?

Answer #1: Because we Pasken like the Rabbanan, who rule that the time to Daven Minchah lasts until nightfall, as we say later(on Daf 27.) 'Now that the Halachah is neither like one nor like the other, whichever opinion one adopts is correcf'.

Question: The Kashya remains however, that we are guilty performing two Kulos that contradict one another. Since the reason that we Daven Ma'ariv immediately after P'lag ha'Minchah is due to the fact that Minchah-time concludes at P'lag ha'Minchah, and the time to Daven Ma'ariv begins immediately - like the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah ...

Question (cont): Yet regarding Tefilas Minchah, we do not abide by Rebbi Yehudah's opinion, only by that of the Rabbanan?

Answer #2: The Ri therefore explains that to be sure the main K'ri'as Sh'ma is the one that we recite in Shul ...

Answer #2 (cont.): And the reason that we Daven Ma'ariv whilst it is still day is because we hold like those Tana'im cited in the Gemara who hold 'from the time that the day is sanctified', and 'from the time that people arrive home to eat' (with reference to the Friday evening meal), both of which coincide with the time of Tefilah.

Proof: And proof for this lies in the Gemara later (Daf 27.), where Rav used to Daven the Shabbos Davenning on Erev Shabbos (i.e. before nightfall). Presumably, he also recited K'ri'as Sh'ma then (See Maharsha).

Conclusion: Based on all these proofs, it is clear that the K'ri'as Sh'ma that one recites in Shul is the main one.

Clarification: And when the Yerushalmi asks why they used to read the Sh'ma in Shul ...

Clarification (cont.): Rabeinu explains that this is based on the custom to read the Sh'ma before the Tefilah, in the way that we read "Ashrei" first.

Halachah: It would seem from here that someone who reads K'ri'as Sh'ma she'al ha'Mitah does not recite a B'rachah over it. Neither is it necessary to recite more than the first Parshah.

Source: Like we find by the Korban Tamid, where the Torah mentions the morning first.

Clarification: If the Tana relied on the Pasuk of "u've'Shochb'cha", then (we could say that) the Pasuk is only particular in connection with the Sh'ma.

Clarification (cont.): But if, as we are now saying, it relies on the Pasuk concerning the creation of the world, then it is particular on everything. That being the case, why does the Tana, in the Seifa, mention Shachris first?

Clarification: The Yerushalmi explains that the seven B'rachos (of the Sh'ma) correspond to the Pasuk "Sheva ba'Yom Hilalticha".

Implied Question: The Tana does not include (the B'rachah of) "Yir'u Eineinu" (that they recite in Chutz la'Aretz at Ma'ariv) ...

Answer: Because that is a B'rachah that the Chachahmim added later, to wait for their friends in Shul.

Conclusion: And that pertained specifically in their Shuls which were located in the fields, where they were in danger fof being attacked by Mazikin (Sheidim). But in our Shuls, it is not necessary to wait for our friends (See Gilyon ha'Shas) - except at Ma'ariv.

Question: But have we not already learned this in Maseches Nega'im (Perek 14), and it is cited in Perrek ha'Areil (Daf 74:) 'When the sun sets, he (the Kohen) may eat Terumah?

Answer: It is the way of the Gemara to repeat briefly something that it has already stated.

Explanation #1: Rashi explains 'until the light of the eighth day shines', and "ve'Taher" refers to the Taharah of the person - that he becomes Tahor when he brings his Korbanos.

Question #1: We can then ask on the case in 'ha'Areil' (Daf 74:), where the Gemara permits a Kohen who was Tamei to eat his T'rumah with sunset - from where does the Gemara there know that it means when the sun sets?

Question #2: Furthermore, how can the Gemara here establish the case by sunrise, since the Pasuk ought then to have written "Vezarach ha'Shemesh Vetaher", like the Pasuk writes in Bamidbar "mi'Mizrach Shemesh"?

Question #2 (cont.): Or a Lashon of 'Yetzi'ah', like the Pasuk in Lech-l'cha "ha'Shemesh Yatza al ha'Aretz". And since the Torah writes "u'Ba ha'Shemesh" it clearly means sunset?

Question #3: Moreover, the Gemara will shortly ask whether "u'Ba ha'Shemesh" means when the sun sets ... and it resolves the She'eilah from a Beraisa, which states ... 'Zeicher le'Davar ... ', and which concludes with the Mishnah in Nega'im (Perek 14) 'When the sun sets, he may eat T'rumah'. A clear indication that "u'Ba ha"Shemesh" means sunset.

Explanation #2: What the Gemara therefore means is the following: 'How do you know that "u'Ba ha'Shemesh ve'Taher" pertains to the arrival of the sun Mamash, and "Vetaher" refers to the day (i.e. nightfall)? Perhaps it refers to the arrival of the light (i.e. the beginning of sunset) which takes place when it first enters the sky (i.e. when it disappears from view over the horizon) leaving another five Milin till nightfall. And "Vetaher" refers (not to the day, but) to the man'?

Conclusion: Now there is no problem from the Mishnah in ha'Areil - since it is possible to interpert 'He'eriv Shimsho' there as 'Bi'as Oro' (the beginning of sunset). Neither can one prove from there that it is nightfall ...

Conclusion (cont.): That explains why, in our Sugya, it is necessary to cite the Beraisa of 'nightfall'.

Implied Question: Even though we often find the expression "Vetaher" ...

Answer: That is only where there is no room for error, but here, where there is, the Pasuk ought to have written 'V'yithar'.

Question: When is the poor man himself supposed to Daven ...

Question (cont.): Seeing as the Tana equates his eating time with the time to recite the 'Sh'ma'? And once the time to recite the Sh'ma arrives, he is forbidden to eat, until he has Davened. As we will learn in a Beraisa later (Daf 4:) 'He reads the Sh'ma, Davens, eats and recites the B'rachah Achronah ... -

Question (cont.): And anyone who transgresses the words of the Rabbanan is Chayav Misah?

Answer: The time of Tefilah actually precedes that of eating; and when the Tana says 'from when the poor man arrives home to eat', this is La'av Davka, because whilst his meal is being prepared, he recites the Sh'ma and Davens the Amidah.

Clarification: There is no real proof, since the Pasuk (in Nechemyah) is not talking with reference to K'ri'as Sh'ma.)

Implied Question: We cannot say that the time of a poor man precedes Kidush, or vice-versa ...

Answer: Since it is not logical to make so many distinctions in the time of going to lie down, seeing as all this times are included in it.

Question: He ought to ask the same question on himself - since P'lag ha'Minchah is still daytime, and he will say later (on daf 27.) that the time to Daven Ma'ariv takes effect as soon as P'lag ha'Minchah has passed?

Answer: There is nothing to ask on him, since he does not Darshen "u've'Shochb'cha u've'Kumecha". And it is on the Rabbanan who do, that the Kashya (that the time of Shecvhivah has not yet arrived?)