1)

(a)How will Rav Ada bar Ahavah, who holds that there is no such thing as Tafel Chamur min ha'Ikar, explain the fact that even though ...

1. ... Kedushah does not take effect on a permanent Ba'al-Mum, Temurah does?

2. ... a Korban Pesach on Pesach does not require Semichah, Nesachim or Matnas Chazeh ve'Shok to a Kohen, during the rest of the year, it does?

(b)What might we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Veshachat es ha'Chatas bi'Mekom ha'Olah"?

(c)From the Pasuk in Tzav "bi'Mekom asher Yishchatu es ha'Olah Yishchatu es ha'Asham" we learn that the Asham requires Tzafon. What do we learn from ...

1. ... the Pasuk there "ve'es Damo Yizrok"?

2. ... the 'Vav' in "ve'es"?

3. ... the Pasuk in Metzora (in connection with the Asham Metzora) "Veshachat es ha'Keves"?

1)

(a)Rav Ada bar Ahavah, who holds that there is no such thing as Tafel Chamur min ha'Ikar, will ascribe ...

1. ... Kedushah not taking effect on a permanent Ba'al-Mum, whereas Temurah does - to the fact that Kodshim comes from Chulin, whereas Temurah comes from Kodshim.

2. ... Korban Pesach on Pesach not requiring Semichah, Nesachim or Matnas Chazeh ve'Shok to a Kohen, whereas during the rest of the year, it does - to the fact that after Pesach, the Korban Pesach changes its status to a Shelamim.

(b)We might learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Veshachat es ha'Chatas bi'Mekom ha'Olah" that - Tzafon is Me'akev by an Olah.

(c)We learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "bi'Mekom asher Yishchatu es ha'Olah Yishchatu es ha'Asham" that the Asham requires Tzafon, from ...

1. ... the Pasuk there "ve'es Damo Yizrok" we learn that - the Kabalas ha'Dam does too, and from ...

2. ... the 'Vav' in "ve'es" that - the Kohen who receives the blood must also be standing in the north.

3. ... the Pasuk in Metzora (in connection with the Asham Metzora) "Veshachat es ha'Keves bi'Mekom ashar Yishchat es ha'Chatas ... " that - Tzafon is Me'akev by an Asham.

2)

(a)What does the Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Metzora "Veshachat es ha'Keves ... ki ka'Chatas ha'Asham"?

(b)Why do we need this Pasuk? Why would we have otherwise said that the Asham Metzora does not require Matan Damim and Emurim on the Mizbe'ach?

(c)What Kashya does this pose on the previous D'rashah (that "Veshachat es ha'Keves ... " teaches us that Tzafon is Me'akev)?

(d)We answer Im Kein, Lichtov be'Hai, ve'Lo Lichtov be'Hai'. What do we mean by that?

2)

(a)The Beraisa learns from the Pasuk in Metzora "Veshachat es ha'Keves ... ki ka'Chatas ha'Asham" that - the Asham Metzora requires Matan Damim and Matan Emurim on the Mizbe'ach.

(b)Otherwise, based on the principle Davar she'Hayah bi'Chelal ve'Yatza Lidon be'Davar he'Chadash ... , we would have said that - since it has the unique Din of placing the blood on the big right thumb, the big toe and the middle section of the right ear, it no longer follows the procedure of a regular Asham.

(c)This poses a Kashya on the previous D'rashah (that "Veshachat es ha'Keves ... " teaches us that Tzafon is Me'akev) - because we need that Pasuk for the same reason as we need the continuation, to teach us that an Asham Metzora requires Tzafon even Lechatchilah.

(d)We answer Im Kein, Lichtov be'Hai, ve'Lo Lichtov be'Hai - if that were so, it would suffice to let us know that by the Asham Metzora (from which we would extend it to other Ashamos), but now that the Torah also writes it by "Zos Toras ha'Asham (bi'Mekom asher Yishchatu .... )", we learn that it is Me'akev.

3)

(a)The previous D'rashah concurs with those who say that, apart from the unique Halachah, we can extend whatever the Torah subsequently writes by the Davar she'Hayah bi'Chelal to the K'lal. Why does it not seem to concur with those who say that we neither learn it from the K'lal, nor the K'lal from it?

(b)How do we reconcile the previous D'rashah even according to the latter opinion?

(c)Rav Zutra b'rei de'Rav Mari asked Ravina that maybe the Torah only reinstates the Asham Metzora in the Din of the Matanos, but not in the Din of Tzafon. On what grounds did he say that?

(d)What did Ravina reply?

3)

(a)The previous D'rashah concurs with those who say that apart from the unique Halachah, we can extend whatever the Torah subsequently writes by the Davar she'Hayah bi'Chelal to the K'lal. It does not however, seem to concur with those who say that we neither learn it from the K'lal, nor the K'lal from it - because we would then need bi'Mekom asher Yishchatu .... )" to teach us Tzafon Lechatchilah by other Ashamos (and not Le'akev).

(b)We reconcile the previous D'rashah even according to the latter opinion - by establishing that now that the Torah wrote "Ki ka'Chatas ka'Asham" by Asham Metzora, the Torah has indicated that all Ashamos are like the Asham Metzora, in which case the Pasuk in Tzav comes Le'akev.

(c)Rav Zutra b'rei de'Rav Mari asked Ravina that maybe the Torah only reinstates the Asham Metzora regarding the Din of the Matanos, but not regarding the Din of Tzafon - since the Torah writes there "ka'Chatas ka'Asham hu la'Kohen", and whereas the Matanos require Kehunah, the Shechitah does not.

(d)Ravina replied - that Rav Zutra's Kashya would have been valid had the Torah written "ki ka'Chatas Hu ... ", but now that it writes "ki ka'Chatas ka'Asham hHu ... ", the Torah clearly indicates that the Asham Metzora remains like all other Ashamos.

49b----------------------------------------49b

4)

(a)The Torah writes "Veshachat es ha'Keves bi'Mekom asher Yishchat es ha'Chatas ve'es ha'Olah". How does Ravina explain why it needs to compare a Asham both to the Chatas and to an Olah, why not just ...

1. ... to a Chatas?

2. ... to an Olah?

(b)But surely if the Torah held Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh, then it would rather have compared Asham to Chatas, which immediately precedes it?

(c)So what is the outcome of the Sugya? What do we learn from the fact that the Torah compares Asham both to Chatas and to Olah?

4)

(a)The Torah writes "Veshachat es ha'Keves bi'Mekom asher Yishchat es ha'Chatas ve'es ha'Olah", comparing the Asham both to a Chatas and to an Olah, because, as Ravina explains, if it only compared it ...

1. ... to a Chatas, - we would have learned from there that Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh.

2. ... to an Olah - we would still have thought that generally, Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh ...

(b)... and the reason that the Torah chose here to compare Asham to Olah and not to Chatas, which immediately precedes it is - because it prefers to learn it directly from the source.

(c)Consequently, the Torah compares Asham both to Chatas and to Olah to teach us categorically - that Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Eino Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh.

5)

(a)Rava learns Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Eino Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh from another source. What is the problem with ...

1. ... the Pasuk in Vayikra (in connection with the Emurim of the Par Kohen Mashi'ach) "Ka'asher Yuram mi'Shor Zevach ha'Shelamim"?

2. ... learning Yoseres ha'Kaved by the Se'irei Avodas-Kochavim from Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur?

(b)How does the first Kashya answer the second?

(c)Rav Papa asked Rava why the Torah does not simply insert the Yoseres ha'Kaved and the Sh'tei ha'Kelayos directly in the Parshah of Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur, in which case a Hekesh to Par Kohen Mashi'ach would not be necessary. What did Rava reply?

5)

(a)Rava learns Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Eino Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh from another source. The problem with ...

1. ... the Pasuk in Vayikra (in connection with the Emurim of the Par Kohen Mashi'ach) "Ka'asher Yuram mi'Shor Zevach ha'Shelamim" is that - all the Chalavim are specified, so why does the Torah find it necessary to compare it to Shelamim?

2. ... learning Yoseres ha'Kaved by the Se'irei Avodas-Kochavim from Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur is that - the Torah does not specify the Yoseres ha'Kaveid and the Sh'tei ha'Kelayos by Par He'elam Davar either, and we only know that they are included from a Hekesh to the Par Kohen Mashi'ach (which suggests that Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh).

(b)The first Kashya however, answers the second inasmuch as - due to the superfluous comparison to Shelamim, it is as if the Torah had specified the required parts by Par Kohen Mashi'ach, and Im Eino Inyan (since it is not needed there), it is as if they had been specifically mentioned by the Par He'elam Davar, to teach us Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Eino Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh.

(c)When Rav Papa asked Rava why the Torah does not simply insert the Yoseres ha'Kaved and the Sh'tei ha'Kelayos directly in the Parshah of Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur, in which case a Hekesh to Par Kohen Mashi'ach would not be necessary he replied - we would then not have a source for the principle 'Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Eino Chozer u"Melameid be'Hekesh'.

6)

(a)Rebbi Nasan ben Avtulmus in a Beraisa learns P'richah by Tzara'as Begadim with a Gezeirah-Shavah "Karachas ve'Gabachas" "Karachas ve'Gabachas" (both is Tazri'a) from Tzara'as Adam on a location of hair. What does P'richah mean?

(b)What do we learn from "me'Rosho ve'Ad Raglo"?

(c)How does Rebbi Yochanan refute the proof from there that Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Chozer u"Melameid bi'Gezeirah-Shava?

(d)How does he then go on to prove that by Kodshim, we hold 'Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Eino Chozer u"Melameid bi'Gezeirah-Shavah', from the fact that the Torah writes "Tzafonah" by Asham? What is he referring to when he cites the Gezeirah-Shavah "Kodshei Kodshim" "Kodshei Kodshim"?

6)

(a)Rebbi Nasan ben Avtulmus in a Beraisa learns P'richah by Tzara'as Begadim with a Gezeirah-Shavah "Karachas ve'Gabachas" "Karachas ve'Gabachas"(both in Tazri'a) from Tzara'as Adam on a location of hair. P'richah means that - if the mark of Tzara'as which is otherwise a Si'man Tum'ah, spreads to cover the entire body, he is Tahor.

(b)We learn from "me'Rosho ve'Ad Raglo" that - just as it is Tahor on the location of the body, so too, is it Tahor on the location of the hair (if it spreads across the entire head, it is Tahor).

(c)Rebbi Yochanan refutes the proof from there that 'Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh, Chozer u"Melameid bi'Gezeirah-Shavah' - because the question of not learning one Lameid from another is confined to the realm of Kodshim.

(d)He then goes on to prove that by Kodshim, we hold Davar ha'Lameid be'Hekesh Eino Chozer u"Melameid bi'Gezeirah-Shavah, from the fact that the Torah writes "Tzafonah" by Asham - because otherwise, why can we not learn it from the Gezeirah-Shavah "Kodshei Kodshim" "Kodshei Kodshim" from Chatas, which in turn, we learn with a Hekesh from Olah.

7)

(a)How do we try to counter Rebbi Yochanan's proof? What Pircha do we ask on the Gezeirah-Shavah (of Asham from Chatas)?

(b)On what grounds do we refute it?

7)

(a)We try to counter Rebbi Yochanan's proof - by claiming that we cannot learn Asham from Chatas, since the latter atones for Chayvei K'riysus, which the former does not.

(b)And we refute it - on the grounds that seeing as the words "Kodshei Kodshim" appears a number of times by each one, the Gezeirah-Shavah is Mufnah (based on words that are redundant) in which case, it cannot be rejected.

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