(a) Seeing as the Rabanan agree with Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah - that we are concerned that the Kohen Gadol may become Tamei, why do they argue with him with regard to worrying that his wife may die?

(b) The Rabanan counter Rebbi Yehudah (in our Mishnah, who argues that, if we are worried about one wife dying, why should we not also worry about two). How does Rebbi Yehudah contend with that?

(c) If the Rabanan do not want to contend with the possibility of death, because of 'Im Kein, Ein l'Davar Sof', why do they contend with the possibility that the Kohen Gadol may become Tamei? Why should we not say there too, 'En l'Davar Sof' - that maybe both Kohanim will become Tamei?

(d) Then what is the point of preparing a deputy?

(a) What is the problem with learning that the Kohen Gadol prepares a second wife ...

1. ... but does not actually marry her yet?

2. ... and marries her before performing the Avodah on Yom Kipur?

(b) We conclude that he marries her and divorces her again. Why can this cannot be explained literally?

(c) So we interpret it to mean that he divorces her, but with a condition. Why can this not mean on condition ...

1. ... that she dies?

2. ... that she does not die?

(a) If he stipulated that the Get should be effective if either of the two women dies, it is not a Get - irrespective of whether one of them dies or not. Why is that?

(b) What is the difference whether a man stipulates when giving a Get - that she may not drink wine for as long as she lives, or whether he says as long as so-and-so lives?

(a) We finally establish our Mishnah when he divorces both wives on condition, the one, on condition that the other one does not die. On what condition does he divorce the second one?

(b) What will happen if the second wife is about to die whilst he is performing the Avodah?

(c) On the basis of the Derashah that we made earlier (that "Beiso" means only one wife), what does the Gemara ask from "Yevimto" in Ki Setzei ?

(d) How do we answer that Kashya?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk "ha'Chutzah" (ibid)?

(b) What would we have otherwise have thought?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk ...

1. ... in Emor "l'Aviv u'le'Imo Lo Yitam'a u'Min ha'Mikdash Lo Yeitzei v'Lo Yechalel ... "?

2. ... "Lo Achalti v'Oni Mimenu"?

(b) From where do we learn that a Kohen Gadol who is an Onan may not eat Kodshim (in spite of the fact that he does serve)?

(c) Rebbi Yehudah says 'Kol ha'Yom'. How does Rava initially interpret that?

(a) If a Kohen is bringing a Korban on the Mizbe'ach, when he receives information that one of his relatives died, Rebbi Yehudah holds that he stop immediately. What does Rebbi Yosi say?

(b) Why does this force us to retract from our initial interpretation of Rebbi Yehudah's statement 'Kol ha'Yom'?

(c) So how do we interpret it?