1)

(a)Both the Chiyuv of entry and that of withdrawal (with regard to Nidah), says Rava, are Mishnahs. What does ...

1. ... our Mishnah say about a woman who, whilst being intimate with her husband, declares 'Nitmeisi'!

2. ... the Mishnah in Nidah say in a case where, after Bi'ah, the man finds blood on the cloth with which he wipes himself?

(b)What makes Rava initially establish the Mishnah in Nidah by entry (and not by withdrawal)?

(c)What if he finds the blood on his cloth only later?

1)

(a)Both the Chiyuv of entry and that of withdrawal (with regard to Nidah), says Rava, are Mishnahs.

1. Our Mishnah rules that, if a woman whilst being intimate with her husband, declares 'Nitmeisi'! - and the man withdraws immediately, he is Chayav a Chatas.

2. The Mishnah in Nidah rules in a case where, after Bi'ah, the man finds blood on the cloth with which he wiped himself that - they are both Tamei for seven days, and are both Chayav to bring a Chatas.

(b)Initially, Rava establishes the Mishnah in Nidah by entry (and not by withdrawal) - because we already know the Din of withdrawal from our Mishnah (so what is the point of repeating it?).

(c)Even if he finds the blood on his cloth only later - he is still Tamei for seven days, as we will see.

2)

(a)Rav Ada bar Masna tries to refute Rava's proof from the Mishnah in Nidah, by establishing it by withdrawal. Why would Rebbi then repeat it in Nidah, having already taught it in Shevuos?

(b)What will be the Din in the case where the blood is found on her cloth?

(c)Why the difference?

(d)On what grounds does Ravina refute Rav Ada's interpretation of the Mishnah? What does the Mishnah say that refutes it?

(e)When Rava told Rav Ada to take note of Ravina's comment, the latter quoted a Beraisa (with reference to that very Mishnah) in support of his interpretation. How does that Beraisa describe the sin concerned?

2)

(a)Rav Ada bar Masna tries to refute Rava's proof from the Mishnah in Nidah, by establishing it by withdrawal. Despite having already learned it in Shevuos, Rebbi repeated it in Nidah - because he needed to insert the Din of where the blood is found on *her* cloth (and it is natural to add the case of where it was found on his, even though we know it already) ...

(b)In which case - the Din will be the same as where it is found on his, but only if she cleaned herself immediately after the Bi'ah. If there is a time lapse, they will both be Safek Tamei and Patur from a Korban ...

(c)... seeing as she may have become a Nidah only after the Bi'ah.

(d)Ravina refutes Rav Ada's interpretation of the Mishnah - on the grounds that the Mishnah speaks about 'Nimtza', implying that the man did not know during the course of the Bi'ah that his wife had become Tamei.

(e)When Rava told Rav Ada to take note of Ravina's comment, the latter quoted a Beraisa (with reference to that very Mishnah) - which concludes 'Zu Hi Mitzvas Asei she'be'Nidah' (which refers to the withdrawal, as we explained in our Mishnah), in support of his interpretation.

3)

(a)How did Rava amend the Beraisa, to reconcile it with the Mishnah according to his own interpretation of the Mishnah?

(b)In the event that the woman becomes Tamei during Bi'ah, what does Rav Huna Amar Rav obligate the man to do?

(c)He concludes his statement with the word 've'Tuveih'. What does 've'Tuveih' mean?

3)

(a)To reconcile the Beraisa with his own interpretation of the Mishnah, Rava amended the Beraisa to read - 'Zu Hi Mitzvas Lo Sa'aseh she'be'Nidah ... ', and then adding 'Hayah Meshamesh im ha'Tehorah, ve'Amrah lo Nitmeisi u'Piresh Miyad, Zu Hi Mitzvas Asei she'be'Nidah'.

(b)In the event that the woman becomes Tamei during Bi'ah, Rav Huna Amar Rav obligates the man - to lift himself onto his fingertips and wait for the Eiver ha'Milah to go limp before withdrawing.

(c)He concludes his statement with the word 've'Tuveih', which means - 'and good for him'.

4)

(a)Rava tries to prove from here that 'ha'Meshamesh Meis ba'Arayos, Patur'. What does this mean?

(b)Abaye disagrees. Why, in his opinion, will he be Patur in our case, even if 'Meshamesh Meis ba'Arayos' is Chayav?

(c)In that case, why is one Chayav for withdrawing immediately?

(d)Rabah bar Chanan asked Abaye why in that case, the Mishnah confines 'Aruchah u'Ketzarah' to Bi'as Mikdash, seeing as by Nidah too, we have the same distinction (seeing as if he withdraws immediately he is Chayav, whereas if he waits, he is Patur). What did Abaye reply?

4)

(a)Rava tries to prove from here that 'ha'Meshamesh Meis ba'Arayos, Patur' meaning that - one is Patur for committing incest or adultery with a limp Eiver (otherwise, why would he be Patur for withdrawing after that).

(b)Abaye disagrees. In his opinion, even if 'Meshamesh Meis ba'Arayos' is Chayav, he will still be Patur in our case - because he is an Oneis.

(c)Nevertheless, one is Chayav for withdrawing immediately - because he derives more pleasure than necessary, since he could have waited and withdrawn with minimal pleasure.

(d)Rabah bar Chanan asked Abaye why in that case, the Mishnah confines 'Aruchah u'Ketzarah' to Bi'as Mikdash, seeing as by Nidah too, we have the same distinction (seeing as if he withdraws immediately he is Chayav, whereas if he waits he is Patur); to which, Abaye replied that - this is because 'Aruchah' (Patur) and 'Ketzarah' (Chayav) by Nidah, works in the reverse order than it does by Bi'as Mikdash (where Aruchah is Chayav and Ketzarah is Patur).

18b----------------------------------------18b

5)

(a)Rav Huna b'rei de'Rav Nasan presents a contradiction in Abaye. According to what Abaye just said, why must our Mishnah be speaking when the Bi'ah took place not Samuch le'Vestah?

(b)How do then reconcile this with Abaye's own statement 'Chayav Shetayim', which we established by Samuch le'Vestah?

(c)What was Rebbi Shimon ben Yossi ben Lekunya's reaction when his brother Rebbi Yonasan asked him to quote the Azharah for a Bo'el Nidah?

(d)Why was he so disgusted? What is the source?

5)

(a)Rav Huna b'rei de'Rav Nasan presents a contradiction in Abaye. According to what Abaye just said, our Mishnah must be speaking when the Bi'ah took place not Samuch le'Vestah - because otherwise, Abaye would not refer to the man who waited before withdrawing as an 'Oneis' (since at the outset, he was already a Poshe'a).

(b)We reconcile this with Abaye's own statement 'Chayav Shetayim', which we established by Samuch le'Vestah - by establishing that statement as an independent one, unconnected with our Mishnah (where a man performs Tashmish with a Tehorah close to her Veses).

(c)When Rebbi Yonasan ben Yossi ben Lekunya asked his brother Rebbi Shimon to quote the Azharah for Bo'el Nidah - he picked up a piece of earth in disgust and threw it at him ...

(d)... seeing as the obvious source for this is the Pasuk in Metzora "ve'El Ishah be'Nidas Tum'asah Lo Sikrav".

6)

(a)What then, did Rebbi Yonasan really mean to ask his brother?

(b)Why was Rebbi Yonasan not satisfied when his brother quoted him the Pasuk in Metzora "Vat'hi Nidasah alav"?

(c)Rav Papa quoted the same Pasuk that Rebbi Shimon ben ... Lekunya quoted earlier "ve'El Ishah be'Nidas Tum'asah Lo Sikrav". How does this Pasuk also apply to our case?

(d)What does Rebbi Yashiyah learn from the Pasuk in Metzora "Ve'hizartem es B'nei Yisrael mi'Tum'asam"?

6)

(a)What Rebbi Yonasan really meant to ask his brother was - the source for the Azharah obligating withdrawal, should one's wife become a Nidah in the middle of Bi'ah.

(b)Rebbi Yonasan was not satisfied when his brother quoted him the Pasuk "Vat'hi Nidasah Alav" - because that is an Asei, and he was looking for the La'av.

(c)Rav Papa quoted the same Pasuk that Rebbi Shimon ben ... Lekunya quoted earlier "ve'El Ishah be'Nidas Tum'asah Lo Sikrav" - since "Lo Sikrav" can also mean 'Do not go away' (like we find in the Pasuk in Yeshayah "ha'Omrim K'rav elecha Al Tigash bi"), and which therefore also serves as a warning not to withdraw (yet).

(d)Rebbi Yashiyah learns from the Pasuk in Metzora "Ve'hizartem es B'nei Yisrael mi'Tum'asam" - the obligation to separate from one's wife from the beginning of the Onah (the current twelve hour period, as we learned above) during which she is due to have a sighting.

7)

(a)What does Rebbi Yochanan quoting Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai say about someone who does not separate from his wife 'Samuch le'Vestah'?

(b)What is his source for this? Which Parshah follows that of "Vehizartem es B'nei Yisrael ... ve'ha'Davah be'Nidasah"?

7)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan quoting Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai declares that - if someone does not separate from his wife 'Samuch le'Vestah', even if he has children like the sons of Aharon, they will all die.

(b)His source for this is the fact that - the Parshah which follows that of "Ve'hizartem es B'nei Yisrael ... ve'ha'Davah be'Nidasah" is that of "Acharei-Mos Sh'nei b'nei Aharon".

8)

(a)And what does ...

1. ... Rebbi Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan learn from the juxtaposition of the Pesukim "Lehavdil bein ha'Tahor u'vein ha'Tamei" and "Ishah ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah Zachar"?

2. ... Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi learn from the juxtaposition of the Pesukim "Lehavdil ... " and "Lehoros es B'nei Yisrael"?

3. ... Rebbi Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan learn from the juxtaposition of the same two Pesukim, but based on the Pasuk "Lehavdil bein ha'Chodesh u'vein ha'Chol"?

(b)And what does Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi add to this latter D'rashah?

(c)What does Rebbi Binyamin bar Yefes Amar Rebbi Elazar learn from the juxtaposition of "Ve'hiskadishtem Vih'yisem Kedoshim" and "Ishah ki Sazri'a"?

8)

(a)Rebbi ...

1. ... Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan learns from the juxtaposition of the Pesukim "Lehavdil bein ha'Tahor u'vein ha'Tamei" and "Ishah ki Sazri'a, ve'Yaldah Zachar" that - someone who does separate from his wife close to her Veses will merit sons, whereas ...

2. ... Yehoshua ben Levi learns from the juxtaposition of the Pesukim "Lehavdil ... " and "Lehoros es B'nei Yisrael" - that she will merit sons who are fit to issue rulings.

3. ... Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan learns from the juxtaposition of the same two Pesukim, but based on the Pasuk "Lehavdil Bein ha'Chodesh u'Vein ha'Chol" that - someone who meticulously makes Havdalah over wine on Motza'ei Shabbos (bearing in mind that the Parshah is speaking about a Kohen desisting from wine when performing the Avodah), will merit to have sons ...

(b)... to which Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi adds that - he will have sons who are fit to issue rulings.

(c)Rebbi Binyamin bar Yefes Amar Rebbi Elazar learns from the juxtaposition of "Ve'hiskadishtem Vi'heyisem Kedoshim" and "Ishah ki Sazri'a" that - someone who sanctifies himself (behaves modestly) during Tashmish, will merit sons.

9)

(a)In our Mishnah, Rebbi Eliezer precluded He'elam Mikdash ve'Kodashav from "ha'Sheretz Ve'ne'elam ... ", and Rebbi Akiva from "Vene'elam mimenu ve'hu Tamei". How does Chizkiyah explain the difference between the tow opinions?

(b)Ula queries Rebbi Eliezer from another statement of his. Based on the Pasuk in Vayikra "O Hoda elav Chataso ... ", what does Rebbi Eliezer say about eating Cheilev or Nosar, or about desecrating Shabbos or Yom Kipur?

(c)What did Rebbi Yehoshua say to him based on the Pasuk " ... asher Chata bah"?

(d)What have we proved from Ula's Kashya?

9)

(a)In our Mishnah, Rebbi Eliezer precluded He'elam Mikdash ve'Kodashav from "ha'Sheretz Vene'elam ... ", and Rebbi Akiva from "Ve'ne'elam mimenu ve'hu Tamei". Chizkiyah explains the difference between them as - whether, for example, someone who is Tamei Sheretz needs to remember that he is Tamei Sheretz (and not Tamei Neveilah or vice-versa [Rebbi Eliezer]) or not (Rebbi Akiva), before he becomes Chayav to bring a Korban Oleh ve'Yored.

(b)Ula queries Rebbi Eliezer from another statement of his, where, based on the Pasuk "O Hoda elav Chataso ... ", he says that one is Chayav a Chatas, even if he cannot remember whether he ate Cheilev or Nosar, or whether he desecrated Shabbos or Yom Kipur (seeing as either way, he will need to bring a Chatas).

(c)Rebbi Yehoshua told him that " ... asher Chata bah" - implies that he must know exactly what his sin was before bringing a Chatas.

(d)From Ula's Kashya we have proved that - Ula agrees with Chizkiyah's interpretation of Rebbi Eliezer (that he argues with Rebbi Akiva regarding 'Sheretz and Neveilah').

10)

(a)Ula answers his own Kashya on Rebbi Eliezer by differentiating between the two Pesukim concerned. What does he learn from the Pasuk ...

1. ... "asher Chata Veheivi"?

2. ... "be'Chol Davar Tamei, O be'Nivlas Sheretz Tamei"?

(b)According to Rebbi Akiva however, since the Torah had to write 'Beheimah and Chayah' (like Rebbi learned in the first Perek), it also wrote 'Sheretz'. What does Rebbi learn from 'Beheimah and Chayah'?

(c)This answer is based on a principle that in turn, is based on the fact that the previous Pasuk is a repetition of one that has already been written. What did Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael say about any Parshah that is repeated?

(d)And what does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the word "Bah"?

10)

(a)Ula answers his own Kashya on Rebbi Eliezer by differentiating between the two Pesukim concerned. He learns from the Pasuk ...

1. ... "asher Chata Veheivi" that - as long as he knows that he sinned, he is Chayav to bring a Chatas (even if he is unable to pinpoint the sin).

2. ... "be'Chol Davar Tamei, O be'Nivlas Sheretz Tamei" - (bearing in mind that the latter phrase is redundant) that the sinner must know whether he is a Tamei Sheretz or a Tamei Neveilah before he can bring a Korban Oleh ve'Yored.

(b)According to Rebbi Akiva however, since the Torah had to write 'Beheimah and Chayah' - to include Tum'as Kodesh (in addition to Tum'as Mikdash [like Rebbi learned in the first Perek]), it also wrote 'Sheretz'.

(c)This answer is based on a principle that in turn, is based on the fact that the previous Pasuk is a repetition of one that has already been written. Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael states that - any Parshah that is written and repeated is only repeated for the Chudush that it contains.

(d)Rebbi Eliezer learns from the word "Bah" - to preclude 'Misasek' from a Chiyuv Chatas.

11)

(a)What exactly is the definition of 'Mis'asek'?

(b)In which similar case will he be Chayav

11)

(a)'Mis'asek' - is where one intends to do something that is permitted, such as to cut something on Shabbos that is detached and by mistake, he cuts something that is attached; or where he means to be intimate with his wife, and is intimate with his sister (who happens to be in the same bed) by mistake.

(b)He will be Chayav - if in the first case, he cuts something that is attached, thinking that it is detached, or if he is intimate with his sister, thinking that she is his wife.

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