1)

(a)Why did Abaye and the Rabbanan pay Rav Ula bar Aba a visit?

(b)What did they suggest one might do in the case of the Todah that became mixed up with its Temurah, according to Rebbi Yochanan, who declares the Lechem sanctified even if it is outside the Azarah?

(c)Why did they refute this suggestion (based on the four loaves that need to be waved)?

1)

(a)Abaye and the Rabbanan paid Rav Ula bar Aba a visit - because he was sick.

(b)They suggested (in the case of the Todah that became mixed up with its Temurah) that according to Rebbi Yochanan, who declares the Lechem sanctified even if it is outside the Azarah - one might follow the initial suggestion (to stipulate that if the remaining animal is the Temurah, the Lechem will remain Chulin).

(c)They refuted this suggestion however - because of the four loaves that need to be waved, and which, on the one hand, must be waved in the Azarah, whereas on the other, if they are Chulin, they cannot be brought into the Azarah.

2)

(a)What did Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi suggest that one might do, according to Chizkiyah, who holds that forty out of eighty loaves are sanctified?

(b)He then places the two Todos in the Azarah. Where will he place the eighty loaves (including the eight loaves that he separated as Terumah?

(c)What will he then stipulate?

(d)And what have we now gained with Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi's explanation?

2)

(a)Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi suggested that according to Chizkiyah, who holds that forty out of eighty loaves are sanctified, one may bring another animal as a second Todah plus eighty loaves, and stipulate - that if the remaining animal is the Todah, then the loaves will serve as the Lachmei Todah for both Todos. And if not, the second animal will be a Todah and forty of the eighty loaves its Lachmei Todah, whereas the other forty loaves will remain Chulin.

(b)He then places the two Todos in the Azarah - together with the eight loaves of the Terumah (since they are all Kodshim), and the remaining seventy-two loaves outside the Azarah.

(c)And he will then stipulate - that if both animals are Todos, then the eight loaves will be Terumas Lachmei Todah; whereas if the first animal is a Temurah, then four out of the eight loaves will be included in the forty (out of the eighty) loaves that are sanctified as Lachmei Todah.

(d)What we have now gained with Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi's explanation is - that we have avoided the Isur of bringing Chulin into the Azarah.

3)

(a)We refute this suggestion too however, on the grounds that it will entail detracting from the allotted time for eating the forty loaves. What does this mean?

(b)How might we alternatively explain it?

(c)And how will we explain it according to the text 'de'ka Me'ma'et ba'Achilah de'Arba'ah (instead of de'Arba'im')?

(d)Why might the outcome have been any different if those four loaves had been eaten by the owner as part of the forty loaves?

3)

(a)We refute this suggestion too however, on the grounds that it will entail detracting from the allotted time for eating the forty loaves ('de'Ka Mema'et ba'Achilah de'Arba'im') - since the Kohanim who have many Korbanos to eat, will inevitably eat four of the eight loaves, but will be loathe to eat the remaining four, on the assumption that the first animal is a Temurah, and that they are therefore not Terumah at all (but part of the forty sanctified loaves that the owner is supposed to eat). As a result, they may well end up being burned.

(b)Alternatively, we might explain 'de'Ka Mema'et ba'Achilah de'Arba'im' to mean - that perhaps the second set of forty loaves are not sanctified at all, and whatever the owner does not manage to eat, will be wasted (a contravention of the La'av of 'bal Tashchis', wasting something useful).

(c)According to the text 'de'ka Mema'et ba'Achilah de'Arba'ah', what we mean is - that treating the second set of four loaves as Terumah entails that they must be eaten by Kohanim, who have only their families and their Avadim to whom to feed them, and who may therefore not manage to finish them on that day, in which case they will have to be burned.

(d)If, on the other hand, those four loaves were eaten by the owner as part of the forty loaves - he would have far less problem finding people in Yerushalayim to eat them.

4)

(a)What does Rebbi Yochanan say about someone who designates a pregnant animal for his Chatas?

(b)Why is this different than the case of V'lad Chatas (which has o die)?

(c)Based on this statement of Rebbi Yochanan, how does Rav Ashi attempt to solve the problem with the Safek Todah, Safek Temurah?

(d)Why do we not ask 've'Chi Mafrishin Techilah le'Mosros?', like we asked earlier?

4)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan rules that if someone designates a pregnant animal for his Chatas, then - should it give birth before he brings it on the Mizbe'ach, he has the choice of bringing either the mother or the baby as his Chatas.

(b)The difference between this case and that of V'lad Chatas (which has to die) - is that in this case, having designated the animal after it was already pregnant, he obviously had the baby in mind too.

(c)Based on this statement of Rebbi Yochanan, Rav Ashi attempts to solve the problem with the Safek Todah, Safek Temurah - by suggesting that he brings a pregnant animal together with eighty loaves, and stipulates that if the Safek is the Temurah, then the mother and the baby and the eighty loaves will be two Todos and their Lachmei Todah; whereas if it is the Todah, then the V'lad will be a Mosar Todah.

(d)We cannot ask 've'Chi Mafrishin Techilah le'Mosros?', like we asked earlier, because here, unlike there, when he initially designated the animal, the V'lad was an intrinsic part of the Korban, which only becomes Mosros after it is born and he has brought the mother on the Mizbe'ach.

5)

(a)What is the basis of Rav Ashi's suggestion? Why does he think that the owner has the option of bringing the V'lad as his Korban Todah?

(b)How does Rav Kahana refute Rav Ashi's suggestion? What is the real reason for Rebbi Yochanan's ruling?

(c)Finally, Rav Dimi b'rei de'Rav Huna from Damhurya suggests bringing an animal and declaring 'Harei Alai Todah'. What should he bring together with a second animal?

(d)What does he then stipulate?

(e)On what grounds does Ravina refute this suggestion? Which Pasuk in Koheles precludes such a plan?

5)

(a)The basis of Rav Ashi's suggestion is the S'vara - 'Ubar La'av Yerech Imo Hu' (or Shayro, Meshuyar [a fetus is not considered part of the mother, in which case, the owner could have precluded it from the sanctity of the mother had he so wished]), which explains why Rebbi Yochanan permits bringing the V'lad as his Chatas (or Todah), should he so choose.

(b)Rav Kahana refutes Rav Ashi's suggestion however - by establishing Rebbi Yochanan's reason as 'Adam Miskaper bi'Shevach Hekdesh' (which we discussed earlier), even if he holds 'Shayro Eino Meshuyar' (or 'Ubar Yerech Imo' [rendering the V'lad part of the mother]).

(c)Finally, Rav Dimi b'rei de'Rav Huna from Damhurya suggests bringing an animal and declaring 'Harei Alai Todah' - plus eighty loaves together with a second animal.

(d)He then stipulates - that if the Safek is the Temurah, then the other two animals will be Todos and the loaves, their Lachmei Todah; whereas if it is the Todah, then the second animal will be a Todah too, and the loaves will serve as their Lachmei Todah, whereas the third animal will serve as a back-up for the second one.

(e)Ravina refutes this suggestion on the basis of the Pasuk in Koheles - "Tov asher Lo Tidor ... ", turning making Nedarim into an Isur, and negating Rav Dimi's ... plan.

81b----------------------------------------81b

6)

(a)Our Mishnah states that if someone declares 'Harei Alai Todah', he must bring both the Todah and the Lechem from Chulin and not from Ma'aser. Why is that? What does 'Ma'aser' mean?

(b)What does the Tana say in a case where the owner declares 'Todah Alai min ha'Chulin, ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser'?

(c)What is the underlying reason for both previous rulings (regarding the Lechem)?

(d)Then why, in the case of 'Todah min ha'Ma'aser ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin', does the Tana rule 'Yavi (ha'Lechem) K'mo she'Amar'? Why does he not apply the same principle (Lechem G'lal Todah') that governs the previous rulings?

6)

(a)Our Mishnah states that if someone declares 'Harei Alai Todah', he must bring both the Todah and the Lechem from Chulin and not from Ma'aser (i.e. Ma'aser Sheini) - because one is obligated to pay one's obligations from Chulin, and not from Ma'aser.

(b)In a case where the owner declares 'Todah Alai min ha'Chulin, ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser', the Tana rules 'Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin'.

(c)The underlying reason for both previous rulings (concerning the Lechem) is - the principle 'Lechem G'lal Todah' (the Lechem is automatically considered part of the Todah , as we have already learned).

(d)Nevertheless, in the case of 'Todah min ha'Ma'aser ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin', the Tana rules 'Yavi (ha'Lechem) K'mo she'Amar' (not applying the principle 'Lechem G'lal Todah' that governed the previous cases) - because, seeing as the principle Mitzvah is to bring one's Korban from Chulin, and he did not do that, the Lechem does not follow the Korban (to extend the sin, as it were).

7)

(a)What does Rav Huna say about someone who declares 'Harei alai Lachmei Todah'?

(b)Why is that?

(c)Then why did he not mention the Todah?

7)

(a)Rav Huna rules that if someone declares 'Harei alai Lachmei Todah' - he is obligated to bring the Todah as well ...

(b)... because, since everyone knows that one cannot bring loaves without the Korban, it is obvious that he intended to bring the Korban as well.

(c)He did not mention the Todah - but he had it in mind as the Korban which concluded with the Lachmei Todah.

8)

(a)According to what we just said, why does the Todah not also follow the Lechem in our Mishnah? Why does the Tana say 'Todah min ha'Ma'aser ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin, Yavi ke'Mah she'Nadar'?

(b)Then why does he say in the Reisha of the Mishnah 'Todah min ha'Chulin ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser, Yavi Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin'. Why does he consider it there too as as if he had volunteered to bring the Lechem for someone else's Todah?

(c)What does the Beraisa say about someone who declares 'Harei Alai Todah be'Lo Lechem, Zevach be'Lo Nesachim'?

8)

(a)The reason that our Mishnah rules 'Todah min ha'Ma'aser ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin, Yavi ke'Mah she'Nadar' (and not bring the Todah from Chulin [just as the Shelamim (which is meat) cannot be brought from the actual Ma'aser itself, so too, can the Todah (and its Lechem) not be brought from the actual Ma'aser itself (and wheat that is purchased with Ma'aser Sheini money is indeed not Ma'aser) is - because he specifically said 'Todah min ha'Ma'aser', making this case no different than if he would have volunteered to bring the Lechem for someone else's Todah.

(b)And the reason that the Mishnah said in the Reisha 'Todah min ha'Chulin ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser, Yavi Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Chulin' (and not also consider it as if he had volunteered to bring the Lechem for someone else's Todah) is - because here we will apply the principle 'Lechem G'lal Todah' (whilst in the previous case, bringing the Todah from Chulin would have been a matter of 'Todah G'lal Lechem', which we do not say).

(c)If someone declares 'Harei Alai Todah be'Lo Lechem, Zevach be'Lo Nesachim', the Beraisa rules - 'Kofin Oso, u'Meivi Todah ve'Lachmah, Zevach u'Nesachim'.

9)

(a)What can we infer from 'Todah be'Lo Lechem ... ' that poses a Kashya on Rav Huna?

(b)How do we answer it?

(c)What will be the Din in a case where someone declares 'Harei alai Nesachim'?

(d)We query the Reisha of the Beraisa 'Harei Neder u'Pischo Imo', which might mean that the Noder added 'be'Lo Lechem' to indicate that he had changed his mind (which is perfectly legitimate 'Toch K'dei Dibur'). What else might it mean?

9)

(a)'Todah be'Lo Lechem ... ' implies - that if one were to declare Lechem be'Lo Todah', he would not be obligated to bring a Todah (a Kashya on Rav Huna, because otherwise, the Tana should rather have presented the reverse case, which is a bigger Chidush).

(b)And we answer - by referring to the Seifa, where the Tana could not have inserted 'Nesachim be'Lo Zevach', since there he would indeed bring Nesachim without a Korban ...

(c)... which he would then sprinkle on the burning Korbanos.

(d)We ask on the Reisha of the Beraisa, 'Harei Neder u'Pischo Imo', which might mean that the Noder added 'be'Lo Lechem' to indicate that he had changed his mind (which is perfectly legitimate 'Toch K'dei Dibur'). Alternatively, it might mean - that the Noder should be able to claim that he genuinely believed that he could bring a Todah without Lechem, in which case, the Neder ought not to take effect against his will.

10)

(a)Chizkiyah answers by establishing the Beraisa like Beis Shamai. What do Beis Shamai say in the Mishnah in Nazir regarding someone who declares 'Hareini Nazir min ha'Gerogros u'min ha'Deveilah'?

(b)What is their reason?

(c)Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Beraisa even like Beis Hillel (who hold 'T'fos Lashon Acharon'). What must the Noder then have added to his initial undertaking to bring a Minchah without Lechem?

(d)Then why does the Tana rule 'Kofin Oso'? Having admitted that he meant to bring the Minchah at all costs, why did he need to be forced?

10)

(a)Chizkiyah answers by establishing the Beraisa like Beis Shamai, who rules in the Mishnah in Nazir, that if someone declares 'Hareini Nazir min ha'Gerogros u'min ha'Deveilah' - he is a Nazir (and is forbidden to drink wine) ...

(b)... because they hold 'T'fos Lashon Rishon' (we go after his opening words, which imply in this case, that he is a Nazir from wine).

(c)Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Beraisa even like Beis Hillel (who hold 'T'fos Lashon Acharon'). The Noder must then have added (to his initial undertaking to bring a Minchah without Lechem) - that had he realized that one cannot undertake to bring a Todah without Lechem, he would never have declared such a Neder (a clear proof that he did not retract).

(d)And the Tana rules 'Kofin Oso' (in spite of the Noder's admission that he meant to bring the Minchah at all costs) - because the Beraisa is speaking where he subsequently decided to go after his opening words (retracting, as it were, from his own admission).

11)

(a)What does another Beraisa say about a case where the Noder declared 'Harei alai Todah be'Lo Lechem ... ', adding that, had he known that such a Neder is invalid, he would not have made the Neder in the first place?

(b)Chizkiyah will establish this Beraisa too, like Beis Shamai. What will Rebbi Yochanan say? How is it possible to reconcile Beis Hillel with the Beraisa?

(c)Abaye interprets the Tana's quote from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Sh'mor", Havei (Bring Todah; "Veshama'ata" Havei Lachmah. How does Rava interpret it?

11)

(a)Another Beraisa rules that, in a case where the Noder declared 'Harei alai Todah be'Lo Lechem ... ', adding that, had he known that such a Neder is invalid, he would not have made the Neder in the first place - one nevertheless forces him to carry out his Neder.

(b)Chizkiyah will establish this Beraisa too, like Beis Shamai - and this time, so will Rebbi Yochanan (since it is not possible to establish it like Beis Hillel).

(c)Abaye interprets the Tana's quote from the Pasuk in Re'ei as "She'mor" - 'Havei (bring) Todah'; "Ve'shama'ata" - 'Havei Lachmah'. Rava interprets it as - "Sh'mor" - 'Havei Todah ve'Lachmah'; "Veshama'ata" - 'Don't do such a thing again'.

12)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah 'Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser, Yavi'. What problem do we have with this?

(b)What do Rav Nachman and Rav Chisda answer? How do they interpret 'Yavi'?

12)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah 'Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser, Yavi'. The problem with this is - why he should have to bring specifically Ma'aser. Surely it would be even better to bring Chulin?

(b)Rav Nachman and Rav Chisda interpret 'Yavi' to mean (not that they have to, but) - that they may bring it from Ma'aser if they so wish.

13)

(a)How does the Tana in our Mishnah qualify the final ruling there 'Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser'?

(b)How does Rebbi Yirmiyah qualify the Tana's qualification? Under which circumstances will the Tana agree that he may bring even the actual wheat?

(c)What did Rebbi Zeira comment on Rebbi Yirmiyah's statement?

13)

(a)The Tana in our Mishnah qualifies the final ruling 'Hi ve'Lachmah min ha'Ma'aser', confining it to - Ma'aser Sheini money, but not from the wheat itself.

(b)And Rebbi Yirmiyah qualifies the Tana's qualification - by confining it to the initial Ma'aser Sheini wheat. But he permits even the actual wheat that they purchased with Ma'aser Sheini money.

(c)Rebbi Zeira commented - that even that is forbidden too.

14)

(a)Rebbi Zeira presented both his reason and that of Rebbi Yirmiyah. Rebbi Yirmiyah learns Todah from Shelamim, and Shelamim, from Ma'aser. On what basis does he learn ...

1. ... Todah from Shelamim?

2. ... Shelamim from Ma'aser?

(b)What Halachah does he now learn ...

1. ... Shelamim from Ma'aser?

2. ... Todah from Shelamim? How does that enable him to arrive at his ruling?

(c)Rebbi Zeira learns the identical dual Limud (Todah from Shelamim and Shelamim from Ma'aser). In which point does his D'rashah differ from that of Rebbi Zeira?

14)

(a)Rebbi Zeira presented both his reason and that of Rebbi Yirmiyah. Rebbi Yirmiyah learns Todah from Shelamim, and Shelamim, from Ma'aser ...

1. ... Todah from Shelamim - because the Torah specifically refers to the Todah as 'Shelamim'.

2. ... Shelamim from Ma'aser - from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Sham" "Sham" (in Re'ei, in connection with spending Ma'aser Sheini money in Yerushalayim).

(b)He now learns ...

1. ... from Ma'aser - that Shelamim may be purchased from Kesef Ma'aser Sheini.

2. ... Todah from Shelamim - that just as the Shelamim (which is meat) cannot be bought from the actual Ma'aser itself, so too, may the Todah (or its Lechem) not be bought from the actual Ma'aser itself (and wheat that is purchased with Ma'aser Sheini money is indeed not Ma'aser).

(c)Rebbi Zeira learns the identical dual Limud (Todah from Shelamim and Shelamim from Ma'aser) - only he concludes that 'the Shelamim cannot be brought from the same species of Ma'aser Sheini (i.e. any of the five species of grain), and neither may the Todah (or its Lechem) (and wheat that is purchased with Ma'aser Sheini money is indeed the same species as Ma'aser).

OTHER D.A.F. RESOURCES ON THIS DAF