1)

(a)Under what condition does the Mishnah later permit cutting the corn in a Sadeh Beis ha'Shalachin that lies in a valley (and which requires constant watering manually) ?

(b)Why did the Chachamim permit it?

(c)How does this pose a Kashya on Rabah?

(d)What reason does Abaye therefore attribute to Rebbi Yehudah, that will distinguish between Chametz and Chadash?

1)

(a)The Mishnah later permits cutting the corn in a Sadeh Beis ha'Shalachin that lies in a valley (and that requires constant watering manually) - provided one does not build a haystack with the cut corn (see Tosfos DH 'Aval').

(b)The Chachamim permit this, either because, if one leaves the crops too long in the field, due to their dryness, they will wither, or more likely - because, due to the inferior quality of the crops, they cannot be brought for the Omer (and we will learn later, that any particular location whose crops are not eligible to be used for the Omer, may be harvested before the Omer).

(c)This poses a Kashya on Rabah - inasmuch as the Mishnah permits cutting a Sadeh Beis ha'Shalachin in a valley, even using a scythe, and Rebbi Yehudah does not seem to object. Why is he not concerned that one might come to eat Chadash before the Omer has been brought (like he is by Chametz).

(d)Abaye therefore attributes Rebbi Yehudah's stringent ruling by Chametz to the fact that - one eats Chametz all the year round, which explains why he is afraid that if one searches for it on Pesach, one might forget and come to eat what one finds. Chadash, on the other hand, has been forbidden until now, and one is unlikely to forget and eat it, after cutting it.

2)

(a)Rava asks why Abaye only resolves the discrepancy in Rebbi Yehudah, and not in the Rabbanan. Which discrepancy in the Rabbanan is he referring to?

(b)How does Rava resolve it? Why are the Rabbanan not afraid that he may come to eat the Chametz that one finds on Pesach?

(c)Rav Ashi tries to resolve the discrepancy in Rebbi Yehudah by confining his lenient opinion in our Mishnah to flour made from roasted kernels. How does that answer the Kashya?

(d)Why do we consider Rav Ashi's answer a joke?

(e)Why will it not even help to confine our Mishnah to where one cuts the corn with one's hands, as we learned earlier (as a reminder that it is Chadash)?

2)

(a)Rava asks why Abaye only resolves the discrepancy in Rebbi Yehudah, and not in the Rabbanan - who permit searching for Chametz on Pesach (unconcerned that one might eat the Chametz that one finds), yet Rebbi Meir, who generally argues with Rebbi Yehudah, is concerned that one might eat the Chadash before the Omer has been brought.

(b)Rava resolves it - with the S'vara that Chametz is different, in that a person who is searching for Chametz in order to burn it, is unlikely to eat it, a leniency which cannot be applied to Chadash.

(c)Rav Ashi tries to resolve the discrepancy in Rebbi Yehudah by confining his lenient opinion in our Mishnah to flour made from roasted kernels - which is inedible in its current form.

(d)We consider Rav Ashi's answer a joke however - because it ignores the fact that one might eat them prior to that stage whilst they are still in grain form, and all nice and tasty.

(e)Nor will it even help to confine our Mishnah to where one cuts the corn with one's hands, as we learned earlier (as a reminder that it is Chadash) - because the Mishnah Kotzrin es ha'Shalachin ... (which permits the actual harvesting) remains difficult, as we asked there.

3)

(a)Our Mishnah discusses the duration of Isur Chadash. When does Chadash become permitted?

(b)How about those who live far from Yerushalayim (who have no way of knowing when the Omer has been brought)?

(c)Why is that?

3)

(a)Our Mishnah discusses the duration of Isur Chadash. The Tana permits it - from the moment the Omer has been brought.

(b)Those who live far from Yerushalayim (who have no way of knowing when the that occurs) - may eat Chadash from midday of the sixteenth ...

(c)... because they can be sure that the Yerushalayim Beis-Din will have brought the Omer by then.

4)

(a)What is 'Yom Henef'?

(b)What Takanah did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai institute after the destruction of the Beis-Hamikdash?

(c)What objection does Rebbi Yehudah raise to the Tana Kama's (previous) statement, based on the Pasuk in Emor (in connection with the Isur Chadash) "ad Etzem ha'Yom ha'Zeh"? How does he interpret "ad"?

4)

(a)Yom Henef (the day the Omer is waved) is - the name given to the sixteenth of Nisan.

(b)After the destruction of the Beis-Hamikdash, Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai instituted that - the Isur Chadash should extend to the entire day of Yom Henef.

(c)Rebbi Yehudah objects to the Tana Kama's previous statement - on the grounds that it is forbidden min ha'Torah (and not just a decree of Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai), since, based on the principle ad ve'ad bi'Chelal (the word "ad" is always inclusive) "ad Etzem ha'Yom ha'Zeh" (the Pasuk forbidding Chadash) means until the end of the day on which the Omer is brought.

5)

(a)What are Rav and Shmuel coming to preclude, when they rule that when there is no Beis-Hamikdash, sunrise permits the Isur Chadash?

(b)From which two Pesukim in Emor do they derive this ruling?

(c)Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish are even more lenient than Rav and Shmuel. What do they say?

(d)How will Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish explain ...

1. ... the Pasuk "ad Havi'achem"?

2. ... our Mishnah 'mi'she'Karav ha'Omer, Hutar Chadash Miyad'?

3. ... the following Mishnah 'ha'Omer Hayah Matir ba'Medinah, u'Shetei ha'Lechem ba'Mikdash'?

5)

(a)When Rav and Shmuel rule that when there is no Beis-Hamikdash, sunrise permits the Isur Chadash they are coming to preclude - the whole night, during which Chadash remains Asur.

(b)They derive this ruling from the Pesukim in Emor - "ad Havi'achem es Omer ha'Tenufah" and "ad Etzem ha'Yom ha'Zeh", which (based on the principle ad ve'Lo ad bi'Chelal [the word "ad" is always exclusive]) they interpret to mean until the beginning of the day on which the Omer is brought).

(c)Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish maintain that - Chadash becomes permitted at sunrise of the sixteenth, even when the Beis-Hamikdash is standing.

(d)Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish will explain ...

1. ... the Pasuk "ad Havi'achem" - as a Mitzvah Lechatchilah (rather than as an absolute Isur) ...

2. ... and that is how they will explain our Mishnah mi'she'Karav ha'Omer, Hutar Chadash Miyad (implying but not before) ...

3. ... and the following Mishnah ha'Omer Hayah Matir ba'Medinah, u'Shetei ha'Lechem ba'Mikdash (all Lechatchilah).

68b-----------------68b

6)

(a)Why, after the Churban Beis-Hamikdash, did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai forbid Chadash until the seventeenth of Nisan?

(b)Why does this pose a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish?

6)

(a)After the Churban Beis-Hamikdash, Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai forbade Chadash until the seventeenth of Nisan - for fear that, once the Beis-Hamikdash will be rebuilt, people will begin to eat Chadash in the morning of the sixteenth, on the basis of their having done so in previous years (without realizing that this was because there was no Beis-Hamikdash, but now that there is, they are ogligated to wait for the Omer).

(b)This poses a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish - because, if in the time of the Beis-Hamikdash, eating Chadash in the morning of the sixteenth had only been Lechatchilah, Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai would not have issued such a decree.

7)

(a)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak answers that Raban Yochanan ben Zakai holds like Rebbi Yehudah. What does this mean? How does it answer the Kashya?

(b)If that is so, then why did Rebbi Yehudah retort 've'ha'Lo min ha'Torah Hu Asur? Does this not imply that Raban Yochanan ben Zakai decreed mi'de'Rabbanan?

(c)Then why did our Mishnah say 'Hiskin' (if he Darshened it from the Pasuk, but did not institute it)?

7)

(a)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak answers that Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai holds like Rebbi Yehudah - meaning that in fact, he concurs with the ruling of Rebbi Yehudah in that Chadash is forbidden until the seventeenth min ha'Torah (because he too, holds ad ve'ad bi'Chelal).

(b)Nevertheless, Rebbi Yehudah retorted ve'ha'Lo min ha'Torah Hu Asur - because he misunderstood Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai (thinking that he decreed mi'de'Rabbanan).

(c)Our Mishnah nevertheless said Hiskin (even though he really Darshened it from the Pasuk, but did not institute it) - because in fact, the D'rashah had been forgotten, and he re-instated it.

8)

(a)Rav Papa and Rav Huna b'rei de'Rav Yehoshua held that Chadash be'Chutz la'Aretz is Asur mi'de'Rabbanan (like Rebbi Yehudah). When did they eat Chadash?

(b)Why did they not wait at least until the morning?

(c)The Rabbanan of Rav Ashi held that Chadash be'Chutz la'Aretz is Asur mi'd'Oraysa, and they only ate Chadash in the morning of the seventeenth. Why did they not then wait until nightfall?

(d)Ravina's nurse told him that his father used to wait until nightfall after the seventeenth before eating Chadash . What was the basis of that ruling?

8)

(a)Rav Papa and Rav Huna b'rei de'Rav Yehoshua hold that Chadash be'Chutz la'Aretz is Asur mi'de'Rabbanan. They would therefore eat Chadash - after nightfall following the sixteenth.

(b)They did not even wait until morning - because they also maintained that the Rabbanan did not include this Takanah in the S'feika de'Yoma of the second day Yom-Tov.

(c)The Rabbanan of Rav Ashi held that Chadash be'Chutz la'Aretz is Asur mi'd'Oraysa, and they only ate Chadash in the morning of the seventeenth. Nevertheless, they did not wait until nightfall - because even if it was really the sixteenth, Chadash would have been permitted already in the morning, and they maintained that it was sufficient to forbid the entire Yom Henef itself, but not the whole S'feika de'Yoma.

(d)Ravina's nurse told him that his father used to wait until nightfall after the seventeenth, before eating Chadash - because he held that the whole Yom Henef is Asur d'Oraysa (like Rebbi Yehudah), that Chadash Chutz la'Aretz is Asur mi'd'Oraysa, and that they decreed on the entire S'feika de'Yoma.

9)

(a)Our Mishnah now discusses the respective functions of the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem. What is the basic difference between them?

(b)If Menachos, Bikurim and Minchas Nesachim that are brought from the new crops before the Omer are Pasul, what will be the Din with regard to bringing them before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem?

(c)How did Rebbi Yehudah ben Nechemyah explain this distinction to Rebbi Tarfon? On what basis is before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem more lenient than before the Omer in this regard?

(d)What did Rebbi Yehudah ben Nechemyah do to merit the punishment that Rebbi Akiva predicted he would receive? What was that punishment?

(e)What, according to the testimonial of Rebbi Yehudah, actually happened?

9)

(a)Our Mishnah now discusses the respective functions of the Omer - which permits Chadash in the Medinah (outside the Beis-Hamikdash) and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, which permits it in the Beis-Hamikdash.

(b)Menachos, Bikurim and the Minchas Nesachim that are brought from the new crops before the Omer, are Pasul - whereas, although bringing them before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem is forbidden Lechatchilah, Bedi'eved, the Korban is valid.

(c)Rebbi Yehudah ben Nechemyah explained to Rebbi Tarfon - that before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem is more lenient than before the Omer in this regard, because Chadash already became permitted to a Hedyot (after the Omer).

(d)To merit the punishment that Rebbi Akiva predicted he would receive (to die not long afterwards), Rebbi Yehudah ben Nechemyah - gloated over having enlightened Rebbi Tarfon.

(e)According to the testimonial of Rebbi Yehudah - when he (Rebbi Yehudah) arrived in Yerushalayim within two weeks of Pesach, Rebbi Yehudah bar Nechemyah was still alive, but when he returned on Shavu'os, they informed him that he had died.

10)

(a)Why are Nesachim not included in the Isur of Chadash?

(b)In that case, why did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak find it necessary to state that, according to Rebbi Yehudah bar Nechemyah, if they brought a Niskei Bikurim before the Omer, they are Patur? Why might we have thought otherwise?

(c)So what in fact, is Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak coming to teach us?

10)

(a)Nesachim are not included in the Isur of Chadash - because Chadash is confined to the five kinds of grain.

(b)Nevertheless, Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak found it necessary to state that according to Rebbi Yehudah bar Nechemyah (who permits Menachos before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem), if Niskei Bikurim are brought before the Omer, they are Kasher - because, unlike Menachos before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, they lack the advantage of the Omer having already permitted Chadash for a Hedyot, which is Rebbi Yehudah bar Nechemyah's criterion.

(c)In fact, Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak is coming to teach us that - if Menachos are permitted before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, how much more so Niskei Nesachim, which were never forbidden to begin with.

11)

(a)Rami bar Chama asks whether the Sh'tei ha'Lechem will permit Chadash in the Beis-Hamikdash 'she'Lo ke'Sidran'. What does he mean by that? What is the case?

(b)Rabah cites a Beraisa, which discusses the Pasuk in Vayikra "ve'Im Takriv Minchas Bikurim". How does the Tana define "Minchas Bikurim"?

(c)What does Rebbi Eliezer there, learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Aviv" (in the current Parshah) "Aviv" ('ki ha'Se'orah Aviv' [in Va'eira, in connection with the plague of Barad])?

11)

(a)Rami bar Chama asks whether the Sh'tei ha'Lechem will permit Chadash in the Beis-Hamikdash she'Lo ke'Sidran - whether crops that were planted between the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, and which are therefore not yet permitted to a Hedyot, will nevertheless be permitted to be brought in the Beis-Hamikdash by the Sh'tei ha'Lechem.

(b)Rabah cites a Beraisa, which discusses the Pasuk in Vayikra "ve'Im Takriv Minchas Bikurim", which the Tana defines as - the Minchas ha'Omer.

(c)Rebbi Eliezer there, learns from the Gezeirah-Shavah "Aviv" (in this Parshah) "Aviv" ('ki ha'Se'orah Aviv' [in Va'eira]) that - the Minchas ha'Omer consists of barley.

12)

(a)Rebbi Akiva learns the same Halachah from the fact that both a Yachid and the Tzibur bring their Chovah, sometimes from wheat and sometimes from barley. Which Chovah does a Yachid bring from ...

1. ... wheat?

2. ... barley?

(b)What does he go on to prove from there?

12)

(a)Rebbi Akiva learns the same Halachah from the fact that both a Yachid and the Tzibur bring their Chovah sometimes from wheat and sometimes from barley. The Chovah that a Yachid brings from ...

1. ... wheat is - the Minchas Chotei (the Korban Oleh ve'Yored).

2. ... barley is - the Minchas Kena'os of a Sotah.

(b)And he goes on to prove from there that - the Minchas ha'Omer must consist of barley, because it is the only Korban Tzibur which can possibly do so.

13)

(a)Alternatively, what Rebbi Akiva said was that if the Korban Omer had consisted of wheat, then the Pasuk would not have referred to the Sh'tei ha'Lechem as 'Bikurim'. Why is that? What does "Bikurin" imply?

(b)This appears to resolve Rami bar Chama's She'eilah. How is that possible? How could the Sh'tei ha'Lechem be called "Bikurim", even if it would permit the crops she'Lo ke'Sidran?

(c)How does Rami bar Chama explain "Bikurim" differently to refute the proof?

13)

(a)Alternatively, what Rebbi Akiva said was that if the Korban Omer consisted of wheat, the Pasuk would not have referred to the Sh'tei ha'Lechem as "Bikurim" - which implies the first fruits to ripen (and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem will always be preceded by the Omer [which ripens before them]).

(b)This appears to resolve Rami bar Chama's She'eilah, because if the Sh'tei ha'Lechem were to permit Chadash to the Beis-Hamikdash she'Lo ke'Sidran, it could still be called "Bikurim" - in a case where the Omer was brought from barley that ripened in the previous Iyar, and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem from wheat that ripened two months later in Tamuz. In that case, the barley of Iyar becomes permitted to a Hedyot via the Sh'tei ha'Lechem (she'Lo ke'Sidran) of the same year, yet when, in the following year, they bring the first wheat of last year's Tamuz crops as the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, it is Bikurim and permits that entire crop to be brought on the Mizbe'ach.

(c)Rami bar Chama refutes the proof by explaining "Bikurim" differently. When the Torah refers to the Sh'tei ha'Lechem as Bikurim he explains, it is referring (not to the first of its own wheat-harvest, but) - to the first of that year's wheat harvest to go on the Mizbe'ach. Consequently, one cannot prove from Rebbi Akiva's words, that she'Lo ke'Sidran does not permit the wheat harvest to be brought on the Mizbe'ach.

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