MENACHOS 47 (21 Nisan) - dedicated by Mr. Michael Missry in memory of his brother, Joseph M. (Yosef ben Arlene) Missry.

1)

(a)What does the Beraisa say about the Lechem, in a case where the Kevasim were Shechted ...

1. ... li'Sheman and their blood sprinkled li'Shemo?

2. ... she'Lo li'Sheman and their blood sprinkled she'Lo li'Shemo?

(b)According to Rebbi, if they were Shechted li'Sheman, but the blood sprinkled she'Lo li'Shemo, the Lechem is 'Kadosh ve'Eino Kadosh'. What does Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon say?

(c)They argue over the Pasuk in Naso (in connection with the Eil Nazir) "ve'es ha'Ayil Ya'aseh Zevach Shelamim la'Hashem al Sal ha'Matzos". If Rebbi learns from "Zevach" that the Shechitah alone sanctifies the Lechem, what does Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon learn from "Ya'aseh"?

1)

(a)The Beraisa rules that in a case where the Kevasim were Shechted ...

1. ... li'Sheman and their blood sprinkled li'Shemo - the Lechem is Kadosh.

2. ... she'Lo li'Sheman and their blood sprinkled she'Lo li'Shemo - the Lechem is not Kadosh.

(b)According to Rebbi, if they were Shechted li'Sheman, but the blood sprinkled she'Lo li'Shemo, the Lechem is 'Kadosh ve'Eino Kadosh'. Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon maintains - that the Lechem is not Kadosh unless the Shechitah and the Z'rikas ha'Dam have been performed li'Sheman.

(c)They argue over the Pasuk in Naso (in connection with the Eil Nazir) "ve'es ha'Ayil Ya'aseh Zevach Shelamim la'Hashem al Sal ha'Matzos". Rebbi learns from the word "Zevach" that the Shechitah alone sanctifies the Lechem, whereas Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon learns from - "Ya'aseh" that all its 'Asiyos' must be performed li'Sheman, before the Lechem will become Kadosh.

2)

(a)Bearing in mind that the Torah writes "Ya'aseh", on what grounds does Rebbi disagree with Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?

(b)Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi disagrees with Rebbi, because he Darshens "Zevach" like Rebbi Yochanan. How does Rebbi Yochanan explain the insertion of "Zevach" in this Pasuk?

(c)To whom was Rebbi Yochanan referring, when he opened his statement with the words 'ha'Kol Modim'?

2)

(a)Rebbi disagrees with Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon - because the sequence of "Ya'aseh Zevach" implies that the Lechem 'is made' (Kadosh) by means of Zevichah (i.e. Shechitah).

(b)Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi disagrees with Rebbi, because he Darshens "Zevach" like Rebbi Yochanan, who explains the Torah's insertion of "Zevach" in the Pasuk to teach us - that the Lechem must be there at the time of Shechitah.

(c)When Rebbi Yochanan opened his statement with the words 'ha'Kol Modim', he was referring to - Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, who agrees that the Lechem must be there already at the time of Shechitah, even though it is only the Z'rikah that sanctifies them.

3)

(a)Abaye, explaining 'Kadosh ve'Eino Kadosh' of Rebbi in our Mishnah (in the case where the Shechitah was performed li'Sheman but not the Z'rikah) explains 'Kadosh ve'Eino Nigmar'. What does Rava say?

(b)The ramifications of their Machlokes are where the owner redeemed the Lechem. What do we initially think Abaye and Rava respectively, hold?

(c)How will Rava then reconcile this ruling with the ruling later that the Lechem cannot be redeemed?

(d)And how will Rava explain the Machlokes between Rebbi and Rebbi El'azar b'Rebbi Shimon?

3)

(a)Abaye, explaining 'Kadosh ve'Eino Kadosh' of Rebbi in our Mishnah (in the case where the Shechitah was performed li'Sheman but not the Z'rikah) explains 'Kadosh ve'Eino Nigmar'. Rava says - 'Kadosh ve'Eino Nitar'.

(b)The ramifications of their Machlokes are where the owner redeemed the Lechem. Initially, we think that according to Abaye - the redemption is not valid (and the money remains Chulin); according to Rava, it is (and the money becomes Hekdesh).

(c)Rava reconciles this ruling with the ruling later that the Lechem cannot be redeemed - by establishing the latter after it was placed in a K'li Shareis.

(d)And he attributes this to the opinion of Rebbi. According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, as long as the blood of the Kevasim has not been sprinkled li'Sheman, the redemption money remains Chulin anyway.

4)

(a)What problem do we now have with Abaye?

(b)How do we resolve the problem? If there is no difference between Rebbi and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon vis-a-vis Pidyon, in which regard are they arguing?

(c)What are the practical ramifications of this Machlokes?

4)

(a)The problem with Abaye is - that seeing as, even according to Rebbi, the Lechem is not sanctified, and the redemption money remains Chulin, what are the ramifications of the Machlokes between him and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?

(b)And we answer that although there is no difference between them vis-a-vis Pidyon, there is - regarding Yotzei (leaving the Azarah) before the Z'rikas ha'Dam, which will render the Kevasim Pasul according to Rebbi, but not according to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon.

(c)Consequently - the Korban and the Lechem will become Kasher (and Mutar ba'Achilah) if their blood is subsequently sprinkled li'Sheman, but not according to Rebbi.

5)

(a)We reject this text however, since Rava's opinion is flawed. Why is it not possible to say, according to Rava (who holds 'Kadosh ve'Eino Nitar'), 'Tafis Pidyono'?

(b)What is then the correct version of their Machlokes?

(c)On what grounds, according to Abaye (and according to Rava's interpretation of Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon), can the Kevasim still be redeemed?

5)

(a)We reject this text however, since Rava's opinion is flawed. It is not possible to say, according to Rava (who holds 'Kadosh ve'Eino Nitar'), 'Tafis Pidyono' - because since the Shechitah renders the Lechem Kadosh Kedushas ha'Guf, it is no longer possible to redeem them.

(b)The correct version of their Machlokes must therefore be - that according to Rava, the redemption is not valid (and the money remains Kadosh); whereas according to Abaye, it is.

(c)According to Abaye (and according to Rava's interpretation of Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon), the Kevasim can still be redeemed - because since Kedushas ha'Guf has not taken effect, the Lechem remains Kedushas Damim (which is always subject to redemption).

6)

(a)According to Abaye, both Rebbi and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon now agree that the Kevasim can be redeemed, as we just explained. What is then their Machlokes regarding Yotzei?

(b)What are the ramifications of this Machlokes?

(c)Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak asked Rebbi Chiya bar Aba whether, if the Kivsei Atzeres were Shechted li'Sheman, but their blood was sprinkled she'Lo li'Sheman, the Kohanim are permitted to eat the Sh'tei ha'Lechem. What is strange about this She'eilah?

6)

(a)According to Abaye, both Rebbi and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon now agree that the Kevasim can be redeemed, as we just explained, and their Machlokes regarding Yotzei is - whether the Kevasim will become Pasul be'Yotzei (Rebbi) or not (Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon).

(b)The ramifications of this Machlokes are - that according to Rebbi, the Pasul Lechem will not become permitted to eat, even if one Shechts fresh Kevasim; whereas according to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, it will.

(c)Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak asked Rebbi Chiya bar Aba whether, if the Kivsei Atzeres were Shechted li'Sheman, but their blood was sprinkled she'Lo li'Sheman, the Kohanim are permitted to eat the Sh'tei ha'Lechem. This She'eilah is strange - because 'Mah Nafshach', according to Rebbi Elazar be'Rebbi Shimon, the Lechem is not Kadosh Kedushas ha'Guf until after the Z'rikah; whereas according to Rebbi, both Abaye and Rava agree that even though it is Kadosh, it cannot be eaten.

47b-----------------47b

7)

(a)We establish Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak's She'eilah like a Beraisa that a Beraisa expert cited to the father of Rebbi Yirmiyah bar Aba: 'Sh'tei ha'Lechem she'Yatz'u bein Shechitah li'Zerikah, ve'Zarak Daman shel Kevasim Chutz li'Zemanan, Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Ein ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul'. What does Rebbi Akiva say?

(b)Rav Sheishes equates this Machlokes with the opinions by the same Tana'im with regard to whether or not, Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'. How does the fact that Rebbi Eliezer holds 'Ein Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei' explain his opinion in the previous Beraisa?

(c)Conversely, Rebbi Akiva's ruling 'Yesh ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul' is linked to the fact that he holds 'Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'. Seeing as Pigul does not normally take effect when there is another P'sul, what is the basis for this lenient ruling? What makes Yotzei different than other Pesulim?

(d)Just as Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Akiva argue over Pigul, they also argue over Nosar and Tamei, as we learned in the Mishnah in Me'ilah (in connection with Eimurei Kodshim Kalim). What is the fourth Din over which they argue?

7)

(a)We establish Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak's She'eilah like a Beraisa that a Beraisa expert cited to the father of Rebbi Yirmiyah bar Aba: 'Sh'tei ha'Lechem she'Yatz'u bein Shechitah li'Z'rikah, ve'Zarak Daman shel Kevasim Chutz li'Zeman, Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Ein ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul'. Rebbi Akiva says - 'Yesh ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul'.

(b)Rav Sheishes equates this Machlokes with the opinions by the same authors with regard to whether or not, Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'. Rebbi Eliezer holds 'Ein Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei' - meaning that Yotzei is completely Pasul, in which case it is not subject to Pigul, as we learned in Zevachim.

(c)Conversely, Rebbi Akiva's ruling 'Yesh ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul' is linked to the fact that he holds 'Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'. Rebbi Akiva issues his lenient ruling here, in spite of the fact that Pigul does not normally take effect when there is another P'sul - because that is only when the P'sul is an intrinsic one, but not regarding Yotzei, which is an external P'sul (as we explained in the first Perek).

(d)Just as Eliezer and Rebbi Akiva argue over Pigul, they also argue over Nosar and Tamei, as we learned in the Mishnah in Me'ilah (in connection with Eimurei Kodshim Kalim). The fourth Din over which they argue is - that of Me'ilah, to which the Lechem is subject according to Rebbi, but not according to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon.

8)

(a)So we establish Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak's She'eilah according to Rebbi Akiva. Why do we think that Z'rikah she'Lo Lishmo might ...

1. ... permit the Lechem to be eaten?

2. ... not permit the Lechem to be eaten?

(b)Rav Papa asks from where we know that Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Akiva argue over whether 'Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei' (in which case the Lechem is still outside). Perhaps they are speaking when they already brought it back inside. What will they then both hold in a case where the Lechem is still outside?

(c)But if Rebbi Akiva holds 'Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei' regarding the Kevasim, why should the Lechem be different?

(d)Why then, does Rebbi Akiva hold 'Yesh ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul'? Like which other Tana does he hold?

8)

(a)So we establish Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak's She'eilah according to Rebbi Akiva. We think that Z'rikah she'Lo Lishmo might ...

1. ... permit the Lechem to be eaten - because it is Kasher regarding the Zevach (as we learned in Zevachim), and just as according to Rebbi Akiva, the Lechem follows the Zevach as regards Z'rikas Pigul (because it is considered to be part of the Zevach), so too, will it follow the Zevach as regards Z'rikah she'Lo li'Shemah.

2. ... not permit the Lechem to be eaten - because just because the Lechem is considered to be part of the Zevach le'Chumra (to become Pigul), it does not follow that it will do likewise le'Kula (to permit it to be eaten).

(b)Rav Papa asks from where we know that Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Akiva argue over whether Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei (in which case, they are speaking when the Lechem is still outside). Perhaps they are speaking when they have already brought it back inside, but where it is still outside, they will both hold - that it is Pasul.

(c)Even though Rebbi Akiva holds 'Z'rikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei' regarding the Kevasim, that is only - because the Kevasim comprise the main part of the Zevach, but not the Lechem, which is secondary to the Zevach.

(d)And the reason that Rebbi Akiva holds 'Yesh ba'Lechem Mishum Pigul' is - because he concurs with Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, who holds that the Shechitah alone does not sanctify the Lechem. Consequently, it does not become Pasul because of Yotzei, in which case Pigul can take effect.

9)

(a)We query this explanation however, from a statement of Rebbi Gidal Amar Rav. What did Rav Gidal say about Z'rikas Pigul ...

1. ... creating a Din of Me'ilah regarding Eimurei Kodshim Kalim (which are still Mamon Ba'alim)?

2. ... taking out from the Din Me'ilah regarding Basar Kodshei Kodshim (which is still Mamon Gavohah)?

(b)How does this pose a Kashya on establishing Rebbi Akiva like Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?

(c)Why would that not be a problem if we were to establish him like Rebbi?

(d)How do we refute the Kashya?

9)

(a)We query this explanation however, from a statement of Rebbi Gidal Amar Rav, who ruled that Z'rikas Pigul can neither ...

1. ... create a Din of Me'ilah regarding Eimurei Kodshim Kalim (which are still Mamon Ba'alim) ...

2. ... nor take out from the Din Me'ilah regarding Basar Kodshei Kodshim (which is still Mamon Gavohah).

(b)This poses a Kashya on establishing Rebbi Akiva like Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon - because, since the Shechitah does not sanctify thr Lechem, how can Z'rikas Pigul then take affect on Yotzei?

(c)This would not be a problem if we were to establish Rebbi Akiva like Rebbi - who holds that the Shechitah alone sanctifies the Lechem.

(d)We refute the Kashya however - by recalling that Rav Gidal has been disproved.

10)

(a)What did Rebbi Yirmiyah ask Rebbi Zeira regarding a case where the Sh'tei ha'Lechem got lost after the Kivsei Atzeres were Shechted li'Sheman?

(b)Why can they not perform Z'rikah li'Shemo?

(c)On what grounds did Rebbi Zeira reply in the negative?

(d)Why is there no proof to the contrary from ...

1. ... the Korban Pesach before mid-day, which is Kasher she'Lo li'Shemo as a Shelamim, but not li'Shemo as a Pesach?

2. ... the Korban Pesach after its time, which is also Kasher she'Lo li'Shemo as a Shelamim (even though it has been rejected), but not li'Shemo as a Pesach?

3. ... the Korban Todah, where the Lechem became broken after the Zevach has been Shechted (as we learned earlier)?

10)

(a)Rebbi Yirmiyah asked Rebbi Zeira whether, in a case where the Sh'tei ha'Lechem got lost after the Kivsei Atzeres have been Shechted li'Sheman - the Kohanim are permitted to sprinkle the blood she'Lo li'Shemo (le'Shem Shelamim) in order to eat the Basar as a Shelamim.

(b)They cannot perform Z'rikah li'Shemo - because, as we have already learned, once the Zevach and the Lechem have been connected by the Shechitah, the one is Me'akev the other, Consequently, it is not possible to perform Z'rikas ha'Dam le'Shem Todah.

(c)Rebbi Zeira replied in the negative - because, he said, if a Korban is not Kasher li'Shemo, how can it be Kasher she'Lo li'Shemo?

(d)There is no proof to the contrary from ...

1. ... the Korban Pesach before mid-day, which is Kasher she'Lo li'Shemo as a Shelamim, but not li'Shemo as a Pesach - because that is obvious as long as the Korban has not been rejected, but not so obvious when it has ('Nir'eh ve'Nidcheh'), as it has in our case.

2. ... the Korban Pesach after its time, which is also Kasher she'Lo li'Shemo as a Shelamim (even though it has been rejected), but not li'Shemo as a Pesach - because unlike the Sh'tei ha'Lechem after the Shechitah of the Zevach, this is referring to a Pesach that became rejected before the Shechitah.

3. ... the Korban Todah where the Lechem became broken after the Zevach has been Shechted (as we learned earlier) - because, as we have already explained, the Todah is different from other Korbanos, since the Torah specifically refers to it as a Shelamim.

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